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Question and answer links
- W1: Four patients with advanced CKD call the nephrology office on the same afternoon. Which one needs dialysis started urgen · Answer
- W2: A kidney failure risk calculator (the KFRE — inputs age, sex, eGFR and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio) reports a 66-y · Answer
- Q3: Two years ago Mrs. Brecht's primary-care labs showed a creatinine of 1.9 (eGFR 29, down from 36 a year earlier) and a fi · Answer
- Q4: If you were thinking "she needs dialysis started now — her eGFR is 17 and she is nauseated," and you then learn that fou · Answer
- Q5: Joan is 66 and independent, recovering from the toe infection, with no heart failure or cancer. Her eGFR is 17 and falls · Answer
- Q6: Joan is right-handed. The PICC ran through a vein in her left upper arm, and a firm cord still marks it. If a transplant · Answer
- Q7: The printout says: "Kidney diet: protein 0.3 g/kg a day, no fruits or vegetables, no dairy." Joan weighs 75 kg and lost · Answer
- Q8: Two women from one household, both with advanced CKD. Joan: 66, independent, eGFR 17, transplant evaluation under way. A · Answer
Session S2 · 2026-10-27 · optional-30 · 30 min Anchor: Chronic kidney disease — preparing for kidney replacement therapy · Integrates: progression risk and referral timing (KFRE in plain terms), vascular access and vein preservation, modalities with transplant referral and conservative care, uremic symptoms and AEIOU, CKD-MBD and acidosis first steps, nutrition counsel Runs 10:00–10:30 only if the full 150-minute block is available. One-line hook: Her first kidney visit comes at an eGFR of 17, and nobody has ever said the word dialysis to her. This case is about what a referral is for, what waiting costs, and how much of it a new PA can still save.
Fictional patients. Every name, date and number in this case is invented for teaching.
Learning Objectives
Answers for this section: W1 · W2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8
- Identify the nephrology referral indication in a lab trend — eGFR below 30, substantial persistent albuminuria, significant progression or elevated validated kidney-failure risk — and explain a KFRE result in plain words, using current KDIGO criteria rather than a single copied threshold.
- Screen for uremic symptoms and the AEIOU emergencies, and explain why dialysis starts for symptoms that medical treatment cannot control rather than at an eGFR number.
- Lay out kidney-replacement preparation at G4: teaching on every option, transplant referral with living donation raised, and an access plan that starts with protecting veins.
- Give first-line CKD nutrition advice (protein about 0.8 g/kg, sodium under 2 g, phosphate additives, potassium by the labs), and name the first steps for CKD acidosis and mineral-bone disease (discussed, not tested).
- Recognize who should be offered conservative kidney management, and describe it as active care.
Warm-Up (individual commit before the case)
Answers for this section: W1 · W2
W1Which call is tonight?
Four patients with advanced CKD call the nephrology office on the same afternoon. Which one needs dialysis started urgently?
A 70-year-old with an eGFR of 9 who is eating well and has no symptoms
A 58-year-old with a potassium of 5.8, a normal ECG and a stable creatinine
A 63-year-old with an eGFR of 11, pleuritic chest pain and a pericardial rub
A 66-year-old with a phosphorus of 6.8, a PTH of 420 and an itchy back
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: C
Learning point: Pleuritic chest pain and a friction rub in advanced CKD require emergency assessment for pericarditis and other causes; suspected uremic pericarditis is an urgent dialysis indication. Other indications include refractory severe acidemia or hyperkalemia, pulmonary edema despite treatment, dialyzable poisoning and uremic encephalopathy. Severe hyperkalemia can require dialysis even without ECG changes. Why not the others: A — low eGFR alone is not a dialysis-start indication. B — potassium 5.8 warrants timely confirmation, cause review and a treatment plan; a normal ECG does not prove safety, but the stem provides no refractory emergency. D — phosphate, PTH and itch need active planned care, unless other urgent complications are present. Course reading: Evidence for this case
W2What "35%" means
A kidney failure risk calculator (the KFRE — inputs age, sex, eGFR and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio) reports a 66-year-old woman's "2-year risk: 35%." What does that mean in plain words?
About 1 in 3 people like her will need dialysis or a transplant within 2 years
Her kidneys are working at about 35% of the capacity of healthy young kidneys
She has a 35% chance of dying from her kidney disease within the next 2 years
She will need dialysis after about 35% of 2 years has passed, roughly 8 months
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Learning point: The Kidney Failure Risk Equation (KFRE) estimates the chance that someone with CKD G3–G5 reaches kidney failure — dialysis or a transplant — within 2 and 5 years . KDIGO 2024 ties actions to it: a 5-year risk of 3–5% means refer to nephrology, a 2-year risk above 10% means multidisciplinary care, and above 40% means modality teaching and access and transplant preparation . It describes a group of people like her; it is not a countdown. Why not the others: B confuses risk with filtration — the eGFR is the filtration number; C — the equation predicts treated kidney failure, not death; the conventional KFRE does not explicitly account for the competing risk of death, which matters particularly in frail older adults; D turns a probability into a schedule. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Part 1 — Presentation
Answers for this section: Q3 · Q4
Mrs. Joan Brecht, 66, a retired school-bus driver from a farm town an hour from Dubuque, comes to the nephrology clinic with her husband on a Tuesday morning. It is the first time she has seen a kidney specialist.
She has had type 2 diabetes for 19 years, high blood pressure for 15, and diabetic eye disease treated with laser. Nine weeks ago an outside hospital admitted her with an infected ulcer under her right big toe; the bone beneath it was infected (osteomyelitis). Part of the toe was removed, and she went home with a PICC — a peripherally inserted central catheter, threaded through a vein in her left upper arm — for six weeks of intravenous antibiotics from a home-infusion company. The course ended three weeks ago and the PICC came out that day. The discharge summary reads: "CKD stage 4. Refer to nephrology as an outpatient."
For two months she has been queasy most mornings, eats about half her usual breakfast, and says food "tastes like tin." She has lost 3 kg since the admission. No vomiting, itching, confusion, chest pain or breathlessness; she passes her usual amount of urine. She is right-handed. Before she sits down she asks, "Is this the start of dialysis?" No one has ever used that word with her, or the word transplant.
Her primary-care record (same laboratory throughout)
| 3 years ago | 2 years ago | 1 year ago | Today | Reference | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Age | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | — |
| Creatinine | 1.6 | 1.9 | 2.4 | 3.0 | 0.6–1.1 mg/dL |
| eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) | 36 | 29 | 22 | 17 | ≥60 mL/min/1.73 m² |
| Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio | not checked | 520 | 760 | 900 | <30 mg/g |
| Plan in the chart | "CKD 3 — recheck 1 yr" | "CKD — recheck 1 yr" | metformin stopped | — | — |
Her creatinine at the infusion company's week-6 check, three weeks ago, was 3.1 (bicarbonate 18 that day), so today's value is a steady state and the eGFR can be read.
Vitals: BP 146/82 (seated, second reading) · Pulse 76 · Temp 36.8 °C · Resp 14 · SpO₂ 97% on room air · Weight 75.0 kg (78.0 kg before the admission) · Height 163 cm.
Exam: Alert, fluent, oriented. No asterixis (the flapping hand tremor of advanced uremia), no pericardial rub. Lungs clear; trace ankle edema. The toe site has healed. On the inner left upper arm there is a healed puncture mark where the PICC entered and, above it, a firm, non-tender cord along the vein — a vein that clotted around the catheter.
Medications
| Drug | Dose | Route | Frequency | Indication |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Insulin glargine | 18 units | SC | nightly | Type 2 diabetes |
| Lisinopril | 20 mg | PO | daily | Hypertension; albuminuria |
| Amlodipine | 10 mg | PO | daily | Hypertension |
| Furosemide | 20 mg | PO | daily | Ankle swelling |
| Atorvastatin | 40 mg | PO | nightly | Cardiovascular risk |
No SGLT2 inhibitor was ever started.
Today's labs
| Test | Result | Reference range |
|---|---|---|
| Sodium | 138 | 135–145 mEq/L |
| Potassium | 5.1 | 3.5–5.0 mEq/L |
| Chloride | 110 | 98–107 mEq/L |
| Bicarbonate | 17 | 22–29 mEq/L |
| Anion gap (Na − [Cl + HCO₃]) | 11 | 8–12 mEq/L |
| BUN | 54 | 7–20 mg/dL |
| Creatinine | 3.0 | 0.6–1.1 mg/dL |
| eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) | 17 | ≥60 mL/min/1.73 m² |
| Glucose (fasting) | 132 | 70–99 mg/dL |
| Calcium | 8.8 | 8.5–10.5 mg/dL |
| Albumin | 3.6 | 3.5–5.0 g/dL |
| Phosphorus | 6.1 | 2.5–4.5 mg/dL |
| Intact PTH | 310 | 15–65 pg/mL |
| 25-OH vitamin D | 16 | 30–100 ng/mL |
| Hemoglobin | 10.6 | 12.0–15.5 g/dL |
| Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio | 900 | <30 mg/g |
Reading it the way the attending does. G4 A3 — every G4 cell on the KDIGO heat map is red. BUN:creatinine 18:1. A bicarbonate of 17 with a normal anion gap (138 − [110 + 17] = 11, or 12 after adding 2.5 per g/dL of albumin below 4) is the metabolic acidosis of CKD: too few nephrons to excrete the day's acid, with chloride filling the space. Phosphorus 6.1, PTH 310 and a low 25-OH vitamin D are CKD mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD): the kidney holds on to phosphate and makes less active vitamin D, and the parathyroid glands answer with more PTH. Iron studies for the hemoglobin of 10.6 go on the four-week labs.
Three things start before she leaves. Oral sodium bicarbonate twice daily, because the bicarbonate has now been low twice: KDIGO 2012 suggested alkali below 22, and KDIGO 2024 frames treatment around acidosis with potential clinical consequences, giving under 18 as an example — at 17 she qualifies by either rule. The renal dietitian for phosphorus. Cholecalciferol (nutritional vitamin D) for the deficiency. Calcitriol (active vitamin D) is not started — in non-dialysis CKD it is reserved for severe, progressive hyperparathyroidism once phosphate and vitamin D are dealt with — and a phosphate binder waits for a second high value. The conversation about what comes next is booked for four weeks, with her son there.
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q3Reading back through the chart
Two years ago Mrs. Brecht's primary-care labs showed a creatinine of 1.9 (eGFR 29, down from 36 a year earlier) and a first UACR of 520 mg/g. She was 64 and felt well; the plan was "recheck in a year." What should have happened that day?
A recheck in a year as planned, since a 7-point fall in a year is expected with age
A wait until the eGFR is under 15, because dialysis and transplant are not discussed earlier
A kidney biopsy first, so that the nephrologist would know the cause before the first visit
A nephrology referral that week: eGFR under 30, UACR over 300, and a 7-point fall in a year
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: D
Learning point: An eGFR below 30 was already a KDIGO 2024 referral indication. The persistent A3 albuminuria and marked downward trend strengthen the need, and a reported 5-year KFRE of 25% is well above the 3–5% referral range. Do not label ACR above 300 alone or a fixed annual slope as the exact current KDIGO rule: its referral figure specifies combinations, higher albuminuria thresholds and other clinical circumstances. Earlier review would have allowed treatment optimization, vein preservation and time for education. Why not the others: A mistakes progression for aging; B is the late referral itself — teaching, access and transplant work-up all take months and are better done before they are urgent; C — whether her pattern needs a biopsy is the nephrologist's question, and the referral is what gets it asked. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Four weeks later Joan returns with her husband and her son, Mark, 41.
Q4Evidence update
Concordance-style practice: there is no expert panel behind this key, the teaching explanation. "Unchanged" means the finding does not move the hypothesis — not "I'm not sure."
If you were thinking "she needs dialysis started now — her eGFR is 17 and she is nauseated," and you then learn that four weeks into oral sodium bicarbonate her bicarbonate is 23, the morning nausea has stopped, she is eating full meals, the metallic taste has faded, her potassium is 4.8 and she has no itching, confusion or chest pain — while her eGFR is still 17 — this hypothesis becomes:
Much less likely
Less likely
Unchanged
More likely
Much more likely
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Formative evidence update: The letter is a teaching anchor. Accept a justified adjacent response; this is not an expert-panel-validated score. Learning point: Notice what did not change: her eGFR is still 17. The symptom that seemed to demand dialysis faded with medical treatment (correcting the acidosis, recovering from the infection and eating again may each have helped), and nothing else that would justify a start remains — no uremic symptom, no hyperkalemia, no acidosis, no fluid overload. Dialysis starts for symptoms or complications that treatment cannot control, and the IDEAL trial found no benefit from starting on the number ; her slope predicts a later start, not one today. Why not the others: B keeps "now" alive on her slope, which speaks to a future start, not this one; C ignores that the one symptom behind the hypothesis is gone; D and E have no finding supporting them. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Part 2 — Data
Answers for this section: Q5 · Q6
The four-week visit
| Test | First visit | Four weeks | Reference range |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bicarbonate | 17 | 23 | 22–29 mEq/L |
| Potassium | 5.1 | 4.8 | 3.5–5.0 mEq/L |
| Creatinine | 3.0 | 3.0 | 0.6–1.1 mg/dL |
| eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) | 17 | 17 | ≥60 mL/min/1.73 m² |
| Phosphorus | 6.1 | 5.4 | 2.5–4.5 mg/dL |
| Ferritin | — | 70 | 30–300 ng/mL |
| Transferrin saturation | — | 16 | 20–50 % |
| Weight | 75.0 | 75.6 | kg |
| Blood pressure (seated) | 146/82 | 136/80 | goal <130/80 mmHg |
Ferritin 70 with a saturation of 16% is iron deficiency; oral iron starts today. Her KFRE is 35% at 2 years and 74% at 5 years — past the 10% line for multidisciplinary care, just under the 40% line, in a woman who is G4 and losing 6–7 points a year. She is independent, healing well, with no heart failure and no cancer. Mark asks the question nobody has asked her yet: "Could I give her one of mine?"
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q5What starts this month
Joan is 66 and independent, recovering from the toe infection, with no heart failure or cancer. Her eGFR is 17 and falls 6–7 points a year; her KFRE is 35% at 2 years and 74% at 5. She has no uremic symptoms today, and her son offers a kidney. Which plan should start this month?
Close follow-up, with the options discussed once her eGFR is under 15 and dialysis is near
Hemodialysis now through a neck catheter, to stay ahead of a kidney that is clearly failing
Teaching on every option now, with referrals for transplant evaluation and access planning
A transplant referral only once dialysis has begun, since listing waits for a dialysis start
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: C
Learning point: G4 is the trigger for kidney-replacement teaching, and her slope and a one-in-three 2-year risk say now . Teach all five options in plain words — in-center hemodialysis, home hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, a pre-emptive transplant (before dialysis is ever needed, ideally from a living donor such as Mark) and conservative kidney management. Transplant evaluation starts at G4 so problems can be found and fixed — an active infection must be fully treated (hers is) and her heart will be checked — and access planning starts because a fistula needs months. Why not the others: A repeats the late referral; B starts dialysis for a number, which the IDEAL trial found no better, through the access with the highest infection risk; D — a pre-emptive transplant, the best outcome, is impossible if evaluation waits for dialysis. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Two weeks later Joan and her husband sit through the kidney-options class. If she needs dialysis before a transplant she leans toward in-center hemodialysis — "I don't want my kitchen turned into a supply room." She is not immune to hepatitis B, so vaccination starts now, while the response is better than it will be on dialysis. The transplant center books her evaluation, Mark asks for the living-donor packet, and the access surgeon will see her next month.
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q6The arm with the PICC track
Joan is right-handed. The PICC ran through a vein in her left upper arm, and a firm cord still marks it. If a transplant does not come first, she will need hemodialysis access. Which access plan protects her best?
Protect both arms' veins now, map them by ultrasound, and place the fistula where veins are best
Place a left-arm fistula next week without imaging, because the non-dominant arm is the usual first choice
Skip the fistula, since the PICC has ruined the left arm, and plan to start dialysis through a neck catheter
Wait until dialysis starts, because a fistula made now would mature and then sit unused for months
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Learning point: A PICC may damage arm or central veins needed for future access. Preserve options in progressive CKD and involve the kidney/access team before another PICC. Prior left-arm instrumentation makes vascular mapping and an individualized access plan essential; neither automatic left-arm fistula creation nor automatic abandonment of that arm is justified. Timing should reflect progression risk, modality preference and the time required for maturation, not a single universal eGFR trigger. Why not the others: B skips the one test the PICC made essential; C gives up on an arm without looking and accepts the access with the highest infection risk; D forgets that a fistula made at the start of dialysis means starting through a catheter. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Part 3 — Course and Decisions
Answers for this section: Q7 · Q8
Vein mapping finds the left basilic vein — the one the PICC used — narrowed and scarred, the forearm cephalic vein too small for the usual wrist fistula, and the left cephalic vein at the elbow a good size; a left upper-arm fistula is planned. The PICC cost her one vein, not the arm. A letter goes to the outside hospital, and every chart she has now carries one line: Left arm — no IVs, no blood draws, no blood-pressure cuffs.
Ten weeks after the first visit Joan brings two things to clinic: a printed "kidney diet" from a website, and her mother.
Q7The printout
The printout says: "Kidney diet: protein 0.3 g/kg a day, no fruits or vegetables, no dairy." Joan weighs 75 kg and lost 3 kg with the infection. At the four-week visit her phosphorus was 5.4 mg/dL, potassium 4.8 mEq/L and bicarbonate 23. What do you advise?
Follow the printout, because a very-low-protein diet slows CKD and delays dialysis on its own
Eat 1.5 g/kg of protein a day to rebuild the muscle that the infection cost her
Keep eating as before, because diet no longer matters once the eGFR is below 20
Protein about 0.8 g/kg, sodium under 2 g, no phosphate additives, potassium set by her labs
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: D
Learning point: At G4 the target is about 0.8 g/kg of protein a day — 60 g for her — enough to protect muscle without a high-protein diet's acid and phosphate load; very-low-protein diets (about 0.3 g/kg with ketoanalogs) belong in specialist clinics that watch closely for malnutrition. Sodium under 2 g helps her pressure and ankles. Added phosphate — "PHOS" ingredients in deli meat, "enhanced" chicken, processed cheese and colas — is absorbed almost completely, so it goes first; potassium advice follows her labs, not a ban on produce. Why not the others: A applies a specialist-only diet to a woman who has just lost 3 kg; B adds acid and phosphate she cannot clear; C — diet matters more, not less, as filtration falls. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Her mother, Mrs. Agnes Theisen, 88, lives with Joan and her husband. The same primary-care clinic referred her after Joan's admission frightened the family, and she is on the same clinic list this morning. Agnes has moderate Alzheimer dementia — she knows her family but cannot manage her pills and needs help to bathe and dress — and heart failure that has put her in the hospital twice this year. Her eGFR has drifted from 17 a year ago to 14 today (creatinine 3.1 mg/dL). She eats small meals and has no itching, nausea or new confusion; potassium 4.9, bicarbonate 21. Joan holds her health-care power of attorney. Asked what matters to her, Agnes says, "My own bed. Joan's cooking."
The attending asks herself the surprise question — would I be surprised if Agnes died in the next 12 months? — and the honest answer is no.
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q8One clinic list, two plans
Two women from one household, both with advanced CKD. Joan: 66, independent, eGFR 17, transplant evaluation under way. Agnes: 88, moderate dementia, heart failure with two admissions this year, needs help to bathe and dress, eGFR 14 — and her clinician would not be surprised by her death within a year. Which plan fits?
Offer both women dialysis first, and conservative care only if one of them refuses it
Prepare Joan for transplant or dialysis; offer Agnes active conservative kidney management
Offer Joan conservative care because of her diabetes and amputation; prepare Agnes for dialysis
Offer both women conservative care, since both reached nephrology too late to plan an access
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: B
Learning point: Conservative kidney management (CKM) is a planned choice to treat kidney failure without dialysis, and it is active care: symptoms, acidosis, anemia, potassium and fluid are still treated, an advance care plan is written, and palliative care joins . Its strongest candidates look like Agnes — very old, frail, with dementia and serious heart disease — while a robust 66-year-old who could receive a transplant should be prepared for one. Either plan is offered through a goals-of-care conversation built on what matters to the patient, never imposed. Why not the others: A makes dialysis the default and CKM a refusal; C reverses the two women's outlooks; D — late referral is a reason for urgent planning, not a reason to impose conservative care. Her informed preferences, prognosis and treatment burden determine the plan. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Resolution and Teaching Points
Answers for this section: W1 · W2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8
Agnes, Joan and the nephrology team talked twice more, once with the palliative-care nurse. Agnes, with Joan beside her as her health-care agent, chose conservative care: her bicarbonate tablets and diuretic, a low-salt diet built around Joan's cooking, an advance directive on the refrigerator (no dialysis, no CPR, comfort first), and a nephrology visit every two months that asks first about appetite, itch, sleep and breath. A year later she is still at home.
Joan's fistula was created three months after her first visit and was ready to use four months later. Mark's donor evaluation is still under way. Sixteen months after the first visit, at an eGFR of 8, the nausea came back with itching and a 4-kg weight loss that bicarbonate and diet did not fix — the symptoms a symptom-driven start waits for — and she started in-center hemodialysis through her fistula: no catheter, no emergency, no hospital stay. The late referral cost her an SGLT2 inhibitor and one vein. It did not cost her the choice.
Clinical Pearl — Refer at the first trigger, not the last Refer for eGFR below 30, validated kidney-failure risk above the referral range, or other current KDIGO circumstances such as substantial albuminuria, significant progression or persistent complications. Send the cause, trend, urine results and medication list. Preserve suitable veins through an individualized access plan.
Clinical Pearl — The SGLT2 window closes at 20 SGLT2 inhibitors are started at an eGFR of 20 or higher and continued below 20 until dialysis or transplant. Joan was 29 two years ago and 22 a year ago; at 17 the window had closed. A late referral costs drugs, not just time.
Clinical Pearl — Start for symptoms, not for a number Starting dialysis at an eGFR of 10–14 rather than 5–7 gave no survival benefit in the IDEAL trial . Treat what is treatable first — acidosis, anemia, volume, a drug — and start when uremic symptoms or complications outrun medical treatment.
Clinical Pearl — Conservative kidney management is active care Symptoms, acidosis, anemia, potassium and fluid are still treated; an advance care plan is written; palliative care joins . The surprise question — would I be surprised if this patient died in the next 12 months? — is one the clinician asks themself. A "no" opens a conversation; it does not decide it.
Pitfall — A PICC in CKD G3–G5 Six weeks of IV antibiotics through an arm PICC can cost a future fistula . Call nephrology first: a small-bore tunneled internal jugular catheter spares the arm veins, and KDOQI 2019 asks that all veins be protected from G3 onward .
Pitfall — Waiting until the patient is "ready for the dialysis talk" Preparation is not a start. Teaching, transplant evaluation and access planning take months; waiting for an eGFR under 15 turns a choice into an emergency.
Concept Links
Answers for this section: W1 · W2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8
Assigned reading: the explanations in this case and the question-linked course evidence guide. The objective map distinguishes tested decisions from concepts taught in explanations.
Concepts: aki-22, ckd-09, ckd-16, ckd-21, ckd-22, ckd-23, ckd-24, ckd-25, ckd-27, structural-25, structural-26.