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Question and answer links
- Q1: A 38-year-old man describes 20-minute spells of pounding headache, palpitations and drenching sweats three or four times · Answer
- Q2: At a walk-in clinic, a 45-year-old man's BP is recorded once as 158/96, taken as he walked in from the parking lot — tal · Answer
- Q3: A 52-year-old man who ran out of his blood pressure pills two months ago has BP 224/128, blurred vision, retinal hemorrh · Answer
- Q4: Office average 162/98 with standardized technique; 7-day home average 154/96; no symptoms; age 26. What is the correct n · Answer
- Q5: You will draw labs today and plan a primary aldosteronism screen. Which change to her regimen today best lowers her BP w · Answer
- Q6: Potassium 3.1, bicarbonate 32, blood pressure 162/98, urine potassium 42 and urine chloride 48 mEq/L, magnesium 1.9, no · Answer
- Q7: You now suspect aldosterone excess. Which is the correct next step? · Answer
- Q8: If you were thinking primary aldosteronism (an adrenal making aldosterone on its own), and you then learn that her plasm · Answer
- Q9: A 26-year-old non-smoker with a normal aorta, a beaded mid-to-distal right renal artery, equal-sized kidneys, a high ren · Answer
- Q10: Eight weeks pregnant, BP 138/88 on lisinopril 20 mg. What do you do today? · Answer
- Q11: BP 168/112 confirmed at 15 minutes, headache, RUQ pain, platelets 92,000, AST 190, UPCR 0.9 g/g. What is the correct imm · Answer
- Q12: Postpartum day 5, BP 184/118 confirmed, headache, otherwise normal exam, normal platelets, liver enzymes, creatinine and · Answer
Session S5 · 2026-11-03 · in-session · 37 min Anchor: Integrative review — secondary hypertension, hypertension in pregnancy and hypertensive emergency, followed over eight years · Integrates: hypokalemic alkalosis as the secondary-HTN clue, primary aldosteronism screen and its confounders, FMD vs atherosclerotic RAS, pheochromocytoma (warm-up), OCP as a substance cause, pregnancy and the kidney, preeclampsia / HELLP, emergency vs severe HTN without target-organ damage One-line hook: A 26-year-old's "a little high" blood pressure at a work physical — and the same woman will test you again at 8 weeks pregnant, at 34 weeks, and on postpartum day five.
Learning Objectives
Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12
- Confirm hypertension with standardized office technique plus a 7-day home protocol, stage it, and decide drug-first versus lifestyle-first by the 2025 AHA/ACC thresholds.
- Name the secondary-hypertension red flags in a young woman and run the cheap screen: stop the estrogen pill, correct potassium, draw a morning seated aldosterone–renin ratio (a normal potassium does not cancel it) knowing which drugs confound it, and read a urine chloride in hypokalemic alkalosis.
- Use the renin result to separate an adrenal source of aldosterone from a renal-artery source; distinguish fibromuscular dysplasia from atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis, image with duplex or CT angiography, start medical therapy with a BMP at 1–2 weeks, and know who is referred for revascularization.
- Manage chronic hypertension in pregnancy: stop the ACE inhibitor the day pregnancy is known, switch to labetalol or nifedipine, and treat at ≥140/90 (reading a pregnancy creatinine, treating asymptomatic bacteriuria and recognizing physiologic hydronephrosis are discussed, not tested).
- Recognize preeclampsia with severe features and HELLP, treat severe-range blood pressure within 30–60 minutes, and choose the right clock for severe hypertension: mean arterial pressure down by no more than about 25% in the first hour for a non-pregnant adult's emergency, oral treatment when there is no target-organ damage, and the pregnancy rule — and when it applies.
Warm-Up (individual commit before the case)
Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3
Three readiness items. They test prerequisite knowledge only; no reasoning is graded from them.
Q1The paroxysmal triad
A 38-year-old man describes 20-minute spells of pounding headache, palpitations and drenching sweats three or four times a week. Between spells his BP is 128/82; during one spell in clinic it is 196/118. Which is the correct first step?
Start metoprolol for the palpitations and recheck his blood pressure in 4 weeks
Order an adrenal CT today to find the tumor, then refer him with the images
Order plasma free metanephrines and refer to endocrinology before any procedure
Reassure him that this is panic disorder, since his pressure is normal between spells
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: C
Learning point: Spells of headache, palpitations and sweating, with pressure high during the spell and normal between, is the pheochromocytoma pattern — a catecholamine-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla. The screen is biochemical: plasma free metanephrines (breakdown products of epinephrine and norepinephrine, and the most sensitive test) or a 24-hour urine for fractionated metanephrines; imaging comes only after a positive result. He is referred before any procedure because alpha-blockade must be in place before a beta-blocker or an operation. Why not the others: A — a beta-blocker alone leaves alpha-receptors unopposed and can set off a hypertensive crisis; B — imaging first finds incidental adrenal nodules and cannot show that a mass makes catecholamines; D — pheochromocytoma mimics panic disorder, and normal pressure between spells is the classic pattern, not a reassurance. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Q2A blood pressure you can trust
At a walk-in clinic, a 45-year-old man's BP is recorded once as 158/96, taken as he walked in from the parking lot — talking, legs crossed, arm hanging at his side. Which statement about confirming hypertension is correct?
Repeat after 5 minutes of supported, seated rest; average 2–3 readings; confirm at home
One office reading of 140/90 or higher is enough to diagnose stage 2 hypertension today
A wrist monitor resting in his lap is an acceptable device for the 7-day home protocol
Home monitors are unreliable; only 24-hour ambulatory monitoring can confirm the diagnosis
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Learning point: Repeat after at least 5 minutes of seated rest with the back, feet and arm supported and an appropriately sized cuff; average repeated readings without conversation. Confirm sustained hypertension with a validated home or ambulatory device. This case uses two readings each morning and evening, at least one minute apart, over 7 days, averaging days 2–7. Why not the others: B — one unstandardized office reading is not a diagnosis; C — a wrist device must be held at heart level, and a lap position reads high; D — validated upper-arm home monitors are a Class 1 (strongly recommended) tool for excluding white-coat hypertension. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Q3The pressure that has already done damage
A 52-year-old man who ran out of his blood pressure pills two months ago has BP 224/128, blurred vision, retinal hemorrhages and exudates, and a creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL (1.0 four months ago) with blood and protein on the dipstick. Which plan for the first hour is correct?
Nicardipine infusion, bringing the pressure below 130/80 within the first hour to protect the kidney
Oral amlodipine and clonidine now, then discharge him with clinic follow-up in 1–2 weeks
Sublingual immediate-release nifedipine now for the fastest drop, then reassess in an hour
Nicardipine infusion, lowering the mean arterial pressure by no more than about 25% in hour one
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: D
Learning point: Retinal hemorrhages and a creatinine that has more than doubled in four months are acute target-organ damage, so this is a hypertensive emergency: a titratable IV drug (nicardipine or labetalol) in a monitored bed. His mean arterial pressure (MAP), (224 + 2 × 128) ÷ 3 = 160, comes down by no more than about 25% in the first hour (to about 120), then toward 160/100 over 2–6 hours, because autoregulation has reset upward and a faster fall causes ischemia. Two conditions carry their own targets: aortic dissection (systolic under 120 within 20 minutes) and severe preeclampsia (140–150/90–100 within 30–60 minutes). Why not the others: A — normalizing within the hour overshoots the reset autoregulation and can cause a stroke or worsen the kidney injury; B — oral treatment with 1–2-week follow-up is for severe hypertension without target-organ damage, and he has two kinds; C — sublingual nifedipine drops pressure unpredictably and is never used. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Part 1 — Presentation
Answers for this section: Q4 · Q5
Visit 1 (age 26). Ms. Lindqvist (fictional) is a 26-year-old woman seen in the occupational-health clinic for a pre-employment physical before starting work as a dental hygienist. No complaints. She feels well, runs three times a week, does not smoke, has two glasses of wine on weekends, and uses no recreational drugs, energy drinks, decongestants or licorice. No headaches, palpitations or sweating spells. No snoring. Periods are regular on a combined oral contraceptive she has taken for six years. No prior pregnancies. Family history: mother with hypertension diagnosed at 55; no early strokes, kidney disease or adrenal disease. Her last recorded BP, at a college health visit at 21, was 118/72.
The nurse's first reading, taken while she was still talking, was 171/104. After five minutes seated with back and arm supported and feet flat, a correctly sized cuff and no conversation, readings two and three were 164/98 and 160/98 (average 162/98), heart rate 76, both arms within 4 mmHg. She went home with a validated upper-arm monitor and the 7-day protocol — two readings each morning and evening — and the twenty-four readings from days 2–7 averaged 154/96.
Vitals (visit 1): BP 162/98 (office average) · HR 76 · T 36.8 °C · RR 14 · SpO₂ 99% · Weight 61 kg · Height 168 cm · BMI 21.6.
Exam: thin, comfortable. No moon facies, striae or proximal weakness. Thyroid normal. Lungs clear; heart regular, no murmur. Abdomen soft, with a faint systolic bruit in the epigastrium, best heard with the breath held. Femoral and pedal pulses full and symmetric; no radial–femoral delay. No edema. Fundi: no hemorrhages, exudates or papilledema.
| Drug | Dose | Route | Frequency | Indication |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Ethinyl estradiol 30 mcg / levonorgestrel 150 mcg (combined OCP) | 1 tablet | PO | daily | Contraception (six years) |
| Ibuprofen | 400 mg | PO | PRN, about 2–3 days a month | Menstrual cramps |
| Multivitamin | 1 tablet | PO | daily | Supplement |
Q4Stage it and decide
Office average 162/98 with standardized technique; 7-day home average 154/96; no symptoms; age 26. What is the correct next move?
Stage 1 hypertension — lifestyle changes for 3–6 months, then repeat the 7-day home protocol
Stage 2, sustained hypertension — start a drug now and begin the secondary work-up today
White-coat hypertension — reassure her and repeat the 7-day home protocol in 6 months
Hypertensive emergency — send her to the emergency department today for IV treatment
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: B
Learning point: Office ≥140 systolic or ≥90 diastolic is stage 2, and a home average of 130/80 or higher makes it sustained, not white-coat. Stage 2 is drug-first whatever the PREVENT score (the AHA 10-year cardiovascular risk calculator, whose 7.5% threshold decides stage 1 only). The second half is the point of the case: onset before 30, in a young woman on an estrogen pill, with an epigastric bruit, is a cluster of secondary-hypertension red flags — so you treat and investigate in parallel. Why not the others: A — 162/98 is stage 2, and lifestyle-first belongs to stage 1 with PREVENT under 7.5%; C — white-coat hypertension needs a normal home average (under 130/80), and hers is 154/96; D — an emergency needs acute target-organ damage, and she has none. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q5The first prescription, written with the screen in mind
You will draw labs today and plan a primary aldosteronism screen. Which change to her regimen today best lowers her BP without undermining that screen?
Start lisinopril 10 mg plus chlorthalidone 12.5 mg daily, following the stage 2 two-drug rule
Stop the combined pill and start spironolactone 25 mg daily, since it treats the likely cause
Stop the combined pill, offer a progestin-only or nonhormonal method, start amlodipine 5 mg
Start metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily, because hypertension in a young adult is sympathetic
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: C
Learning point: Stop the estrogen-containing pill and offer reliable alternative contraception. Treat the confirmed hypertension while arranging aldosterone/renin testing. Drugs can change renin, aldosterone or both; the direction and magnitude matter. Amlodipine is a reasonable interim choice but may lower the ratio, so the screen is not entirely free of confounding. Do not withhold needed BP treatment merely to obtain an ideal test; use the 2025 guideline's feasible medication strategy and repeat testing when appropriate. Why not the others: A — two drugs suit stage 2 in general, but a thiazide drops a potassium you have not measured and both drugs raise renin, masking the diagnosis; B — spironolactone can materially interfere with interpretation; a 4-week withdrawal is considered when safe; D — a beta-blocker is not first-line without a compelling indication and biases the ratio toward a false positive. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Part 2 — Data
Answers for this section: Q6 · Q7 · Q8
Labs drawn at visit 1, before any antihypertensive, on no diuretic, no laxative, no vomiting.
| Test | Result | Reference range |
|---|---|---|
| Sodium | 141 mEq/L | 136–145 |
| Potassium | 3.1 mEq/L | 3.5–5.0 |
| Chloride | 98 mEq/L | 98–107 |
| Bicarbonate | 32 mEq/L | 22–28 |
| Anion gap, Na − (Cl + HCO₃) | 11 | 8–12 |
| BUN | 12 mg/dL | 7–20 |
| Creatinine | 0.7 mg/dL | 0.5–1.0 |
| eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) | 122 mL/min/1.73 m² | >90 |
| Glucose (fasting) | 88 mg/dL | 70–99 |
| Calcium | 9.3 mg/dL | 8.6–10.2 |
| Magnesium | 1.9 mg/dL | 1.7–2.2 |
| Albumin | 4.2 g/dL | 3.5–5.0 |
| TSH | 1.8 mIU/L | 0.4–4.0 |
| HbA1c | 5.2% | <5.7 |
| LDL cholesterol | 96 mg/dL | <100 |
| Urine hCG | Negative | Negative |
BUN:creatinine 17:1. Venous pH on a second sample 7.47 (7.35–7.45) with pCO₂ 46 mmHg. Expected pCO₂ for a bicarbonate of 32 is 40 + 0.7 × (32 − 24) ≈ 46 mmHg, so the compensation is appropriate: a simple metabolic alkalosis.
Urinalysis (first-morning, clean catch): SG 1.015 · pH 6.5 · protein negative · blood negative · glucose negative · leukocyte esterase negative · nitrite negative. Microscopy: 0–2 RBC/hpf, 0–2 WBC/hpf, no casts, no crystals. UACR 12 mg/g (A1, <30).
Spot urine electrolytes (same morning): urine sodium 85 mEq/L · urine potassium 42 mEq/L · urine chloride 48 mEq/L.
ECG: sinus rhythm 74, PR 150 ms, QRS 86 ms, QTc 418 ms, no U waves, no LVH by voltage.
Before any hormone level is back, the routine panel already holds the first clue.
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q6Read the pattern
Potassium 3.1, bicarbonate 32, blood pressure 162/98, urine potassium 42 and urine chloride 48 mEq/L, magnesium 1.9, no diuretic, no vomiting. Which interpretation is correct?
Chloride-resistant alkalosis with hypertension — mineralocorticoid excess; saline will not fix it
Volume-contraction (chloride-responsive) alkalosis — isotonic saline and KCl will correct it
Distal renal tubular acidosis — a low potassium with renal potassium wasting means a tubule defect
Gitelman syndrome — an inherited salt-wasting tubule defect; replace the potassium and magnesium
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Learning point: Low potassium and elevated bicarbonate indicate hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. A urine chloride of 48 makes remote vomiting or a remote diuretic effect less likely, but does not by itself prove normal volume or mineralocorticoid excess. The hypertension distinguishes this pattern from typical salt-wasting tubulopathies. The urine potassium concentration supports ongoing urinary loss in context; a spot concentration alone is not a quantitative potassium-excretion rate. Why not the others: B — contraction alkalosis has a urine chloride under 20 in a dry, normotensive patient; hers is 48 and she is hypertensive; C — RTA is a metabolic acidosis, the opposite of this panel; D — Gitelman syndrome also gives a high urine chloride, but with a normal or low blood pressure and usually a low magnesium. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Q7Sequence the screen
You now suspect aldosterone excess. Which is the correct next step?
CT of the adrenal glands now — if it shows an adenoma, adrenalectomy can cure her
Start spironolactone 25 mg daily now and let her blood pressure response make the diagnosis
Renal duplex first — the bruit means renal artery stenosis, so hormone testing is not needed
Correct the potassium with oral KCl, then draw a morning, seated aldosterone and renin
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: D
Learning point: Screen with morning seated aldosterone and renin after correcting potassium, using the laboratory's assay and units. A positive screen requires the combined pattern of suppressed renin, inappropriately high aldosterone and an elevated ratio; the ratio alone is insufficient. Review medication interference. Withdrawal of interfering drugs, including MRAs, is useful when safe, but no- or minimal-withdrawal strategies are possible. Amlodipine is a practical interim choice but can lower the ratio; repeat a negative result if suspicion remains high. Imaging follows biochemical evaluation. Why not the others: A — adrenal CT first finds harmless nodules common in healthy adults and cannot show that aldosterone is the problem; B — spironolactone can interfere with interpretation and is best deferred until the screening plan is agreed when clinically feasible; C — the bruit does raise renovascular disease, but renal imaging does not answer the aldosterone question the panel has raised. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Six weeks later. Off the OCP, on amlodipine 5 mg daily and oral potassium chloride 40 mEq daily, her home average is 142/90 and her potassium is 3.9 mEq/L. The hormone pair, drawn seated at 8 a.m.:
| Test | Result | Reference range |
|---|---|---|
| Plasma aldosterone concentration | 24 ng/dL | 4–31 |
| Plasma renin activity | 9.6 ng/mL/h | 0.6–4.3 (seated) |
| Aldosterone-to-renin ratio | 2.5 | Positive screen: above 20–30 (cutoff is lab-specific) |
| Potassium at the time of the draw | 3.9 mEq/L | 3.5–5.0 |
Q8Evidence update
Concordance-style practice in updating a judgment. There is no expert-panel score behind the key, the teaching explanation. "Unchanged" means the finding does not move the hypothesis — not "I am not sure."
If you were thinking primary aldosteronism (an adrenal making aldosterone on its own), and you then learn that her plasma renin activity — drawn six weeks after the estrogen pill stopped, on amlodipine alone, with potassium 3.9 — is 9.6 ng/mL/h, high rather than suppressed, with an aldosterone of 24 ng/dL and a ratio of 2.5, this hypothesis becomes:
Much less likely
Less likely
Unchanged
More likely
Much more likely
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Formative evidence update: The letter is a teaching anchor. Accept a justified adjacent response; this is not an expert-panel-validated score. Learning point: Primary aldosteronism usually suppresses renin. Here renin is high and the ratio low, which weakens that hypothesis and, with the bruit, supports a renovascular cause. The result is not an absolute exclusion: medication effects remain possible, including amlodipine. A negative screen with continuing high suspicion needs repeat testing under an appropriate medication strategy. Why not the others: A is the intended direction and stronger anchor; B is defensible if the student explains residual medication confounding. C ignores relevant biochemical evidence. D and E conflict with the unsuppressed renin in the current context. This item is formative; assess the reasoning, not the distance between adjacent anchors. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Part 3 — Course and Decisions
Answers for this section: Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12
Imaging. Renal duplex ultrasound: right kidney 11.0 cm, left 10.8 cm (no asymmetry), normal cortical thickness both sides. Right renal artery peak systolic velocity 265 cm/s (above 180–200 suggests stenosis), renal-to-aortic ratio 3.9 (above 3.5 is significant), with a beaded, irregular mid-to-distal segment; left artery normal. CT angiography (urine hCG negative the same morning; creatinine 0.7): multifocal alternating stenoses and small aneurysmal dilations of the mid and distal right main renal artery — the "string of beads" — with maximal narrowing about 70%; no ostial plaque, a smooth aorta, a normal left renal artery, normal adrenal glands.
Q9Name it and treat it
A 26-year-old non-smoker with a normal aorta, a beaded mid-to-distal right renal artery, equal-sized kidneys, a high renin and a creatinine of 0.7. Which pairing of diagnosis and initial management is correct?
Atherosclerotic stenosis — stent the right renal artery urgently, before the kidney starts to shrink
Fibromuscular dysplasia — start lisinopril with a BMP at 1–2 weeks; refer to discuss angioplasty
Fibromuscular dysplasia — avoid all ACE inhibitors and ARBs, since renal artery stenosis forbids them
Atherosclerotic stenosis — high-intensity statin, aspirin and medical therapy alone; stents help few
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: B
Learning point: A beaded mid-to-distal artery, a clean aorta and equal kidneys in a young woman without vascular risk factors is fibromuscular dysplasia — the form of renal artery stenosis in which balloon angioplasty can improve or sometimes cure hypertension in selected patients; stenting is usually reserved for complications, so the referral belongs in the first plan. Renovascular hypertension is renin-driven, so an ACE inhibitor works well, and with unilateral disease the other kidney holds the GFR; the safety net is a BMP at 1–2 weeks, accepting a creatinine rise up to 30%. Amlodipine continues, and because ACE inhibitors harm a fetus, she needs reliable contraception. Why not the others: A — nothing here is atherosclerotic, and FMD is treated with balloon angioplasty, not a stent; C — the contraindication is bilateral stenosis or stenosis to a solitary kidney, not unilateral disease; D — medical therapy first is right for atherosclerotic stenosis (ASTRAL and CORAL found stenting adds little for most), but she has no plaque to treat. Course reading: Evidence for this case
What happened next. BMP at day 10 on lisinopril 10 mg: creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (a 14% rise — accepted), potassium 4.1 mEq/L; KCl stopped. At six weeks, home average 126/80 on lisinopril 10 mg and amlodipine 5 mg. She met the vascular team, understood that angioplasty might let her stop medication, and chose to defer it while she settled into the new job; she agreed to revisit the decision in a year and to use a progestin-only method. Amlodipine came off at one year; lisinopril was titrated to 20 mg. She never came back for the angioplasty conversation.
Visit 2 (age 29, three years later) — the obstetric clinic. She is eight weeks pregnant by dates — planned, but sooner than expected. Still on lisinopril 20 mg daily. No headache, no visual symptoms, no dysuria. Office BP 138/88 (standardized, average of two), HR 84.
| Drug | Dose | Route | Frequency | Indication |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Lisinopril | 20 mg | PO | daily | Hypertension (renovascular, FMD) |
| Prenatal multivitamin with folate | 1 tablet | PO | daily | Pregnancy |
| Test (8 weeks) | Result | Reference range (pregnancy where it differs) |
|---|---|---|
| Sodium | 136 mEq/L | 136–145; pregnancy runs 3–5 lower |
| Potassium | 4.0 mEq/L | 3.5–5.0 |
| Bicarbonate | 21 mEq/L | 22–28 non-pregnant; 18–21 is normal in pregnancy (chronic respiratory alkalosis) |
| Creatinine | 0.9 mg/dL | 0.5–1.0 non-pregnant; >0.8 is abnormal in pregnancy |
| eGFR | not reported — the equations are not valid in pregnancy | — |
| Urinalysis | protein negative, blood negative, LE negative, nitrite negative | — |
| UPCR | 0.12 g/g | <0.3 g/g in pregnancy |
Q10Her medication list
Eight weeks pregnant, BP 138/88 on lisinopril 20 mg. What do you do today?
Continue lisinopril for now — fetal harm is a later-trimester problem — and switch at 14 weeks
Stop lisinopril and every other antihypertensive, since 138/88 is below the treatment threshold
Switch lisinopril to losartan 50 mg daily, because an ARB does not cross the placenta to the fetus
Stop lisinopril today; start labetalol or extended-release nifedipine and treat to under 140/90
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: D
Learning point: ACE inhibitors and ARBs injure the fetal kidney — oligohydramnios (too little amniotic fluid, because the fetal kidneys stop making urine), renal dysgenesis and neonatal kidney failure — with the clearest harm later in pregnancy and possible first-trimester risk, so the drug stops the day pregnancy is known. Her hypertension was controlled on treatment, so she stays treated: the CHAP trial found that treating chronic hypertension in pregnancy to below 140/90 reduced serious complications without harming fetal growth. Labetalol (an alpha- and beta-blocker) and extended-release nifedipine are first-line; methyldopa is an older, less effective alternative. Why not the others: A — there is no safe trimester to wait in; B — stopping treatment in chronic hypertension invites severe-range pressures and more complications, and her untreated home average was 154/96; C — an ARB carries the same fetal harm as an ACE inhibitor. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Three findings the student neither over-treats nor under-treats. Her 8-week creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL reads "normal" on the lab slip, but pregnancy raises GFR by 40–50% and usually lowers creatinine, so 0.9 warrants review against baseline and repeat measurement rather than reassurance from the nonpregnant reference interval; her bicarbonate of 21 is pregnancy's normal compensation for a mild respiratory alkalosis, not an acidosis. At the 12-week visit the routine prenatal urine culture grows E. coli >10⁵ CFU/mL, and a repeat specimen grows the same organism; she has no dysuria, frequency, fever or flank pain. This is asymptomatic bacteriuria — bacteria without symptoms — and pregnancy is one of the two situations (the other is before endourologic procedures associated with mucosal trauma) in which it is screened for and treated, because in pregnancy it can progress to pyelonephritis, and pyelonephritis in pregnancy is admitted. She receives cephalexin 500 mg PO every 6 hours for 5 days; fosfomycin 3 g PO as a single dose is the alternative. Nitrofurantoin is avoided near term and when eGFR is below 30; trimethoprim and fluoroquinolones are avoided in pregnancy. At 20 weeks an obstetric ultrasound notes "mild right hydronephrosis." She is asymptomatic, the creatinine is unchanged, and no stone is seen. This is the physiologic dilation of pregnancy — right more than left, present in 80–90% of third-trimester kidneys, gone 4–6 weeks after delivery — so it is documented and left alone: no CT, no stent, no urology referral.
Visit 3 (34 weeks) — labor and delivery triage. Two days of a frontal headache that acetaminophen does not touch, and since this morning a steady ache under the right ribs. No visual scotomata, no seizures, no vaginal bleeding; fetal movements present. On labetalol 200 mg BID and aspirin 81 mg daily (started by her obstetrician at 12 weeks for preeclampsia prophylaxis). BP 168/112; repeated at 15 minutes, 170/110. HR 92. RUQ tender; brisk reflexes without clonus; 1+ pretibial edema; lungs clear; SpO₂ 98%.
| Test (34 weeks) | Result | Reference range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | 10.8 g/dL | 11.0–14.0 (pregnancy) |
| Platelets | 92,000/µL | 150,000–400,000 |
| Peripheral smear | Schistocytes (fragmented red cells) present | None |
| LDH | 640 U/L | 140–280 |
| AST | 190 U/L | 10–40 |
| ALT | 162 U/L | 7–35 |
| Total bilirubin | 1.4 mg/dL | 0.2–1.2 |
| Creatinine | 1.0 mg/dL | <0.8 expected in pregnancy (her 8-week value 0.9) |
| Uric acid | 7.1 mg/dL | 2.5–6.0 |
| Glucose | 92 mg/dL | 70–99 |
| Urine dipstick protein | 2+ | negative |
| UPCR | 0.9 g/g | <0.3 g/g in pregnancy |
Naming it. Preeclampsia is new hypertension ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with either proteinuria ≥0.3 g/g — quantified by a urine protein-to-creatinine ratio (UPCR), not a dipstick — or new organ dysfunction. She has chronic hypertension, so this is preeclampsia superimposed on it, with severe features: BP ≥160/110, headache, right-upper-quadrant pain, platelets under 100,000 and transaminases more than twice normal. Low platelets, high transaminases, and schistocytes with a high LDH are HELLP — hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets — a variant of severe preeclampsia. Her UPCR of 0.9 g/g is proteinuria (≥0.3), not nephrotic range (>3.5 g/g); the dipstick 2+ was only a screen.
Q11Severe features at 34 weeks
BP 168/112 confirmed at 15 minutes, headache, RUQ pain, platelets 92,000, AST 190, UPCR 0.9 g/g. What is the correct immediate management?
IV labetalol within 30–60 minutes to 140–150/90–100, magnesium sulfate, and obstetrics now
Raise oral labetalol to 400 mg twice daily and recheck her blood pressure and labs in 24 hours
Start a nicardipine infusion and bring her pressure down to 120/80 within the first hour
Collect a 24-hour urine protein to confirm preeclampsia before any blood pressure treatment
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: A
Learning point: Severe-range pressure (systolic ≥160 or diastolic ≥110) in pregnancy, confirmed over 15 minutes, is treated within 30–60 minutes — delay is what causes maternal stroke — with IV labetalol, IV hydralazine or oral immediate-release nifedipine (never sublingual). The target is 140–150/90–100, not normal, because overshooting under-perfuses the placenta. Magnesium sulfate prevents eclampsia (seizures) in preeclampsia with severe features, and delivery is the only cure: at 34 weeks the obstetric team delivers once the mother is stable, and the student's job is to recognize the cluster, treat on the clock and call. Why not the others: B — an oral titration with a 24-hour recheck ignores the 30–60-minute window and the HELLP labs; C — overshoot: the pregnancy target is 140–150/90–100, not 120/80; D — proteinuria is already quantified by the UPCR, and severe features need no proteinuria at all. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Course. IV labetalol brought her to 146/94 within 40 minutes; magnesium was started; she delivered a 2,140-g girl by cesarean the next morning after a failed induction. Platelets reached a nadir of 78,000 on postpartum day 1 and then recovered; AST was normal by day 4, and she went home that afternoon on labetalol 200 mg BID and extended-release nifedipine 30 mg daily, with instructions to check her BP twice a day.
Postpartum day 5 — the emergency department. She returns with a pounding headache since the night before, "like at 34 weeks." She has taken every dose of both drugs. BP 184/118; repeated at 15 minutes, 180/116. HR 88. Awake, oriented, speech normal; no visual symptoms, no scotomata, no RUQ pain, no shortness of breath, no chest pain. Neurologic exam normal, no clonus, fundi without papilledema or hemorrhage. Lungs clear. Platelets 168,000/µL, AST 38 U/L, creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, UPCR 0.4 g/g (falling), hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL. Non-contrast head CT, ordered for the headache, is normal.
Pause — commit before the reveal
Q12Emergency, or severe hypertension without target-organ damage?
Postpartum day 5, BP 184/118 confirmed, headache, otherwise normal exam, normal platelets, liver enzymes, creatinine and head CT. Which assessment and first action are correct?
Severe hypertension without target-organ damage — raise her oral doses, discharge, recheck in 1–2 weeks
Hypertensive emergency with encephalopathy — nicardipine infusion to a normal pressure within the hour
Postpartum severe hypertension with a severe feature — treat within 30–60 minutes and start magnesium
Rebound hypertension from missed labetalol doses — give her usual oral dose and observe for two hours
Show answer and explanation · Link to this question
Correct answer: C
Learning point: Persistent systolic pressure at least 160 or diastolic pressure at least 110 in the postpartum period needs urgent treatment, with the same 30–60-minute window used in pregnancy. Recent HELLP and a new severe headache warrant obstetric assessment, repeat labs and magnesium for suspected postpartum preeclampsia with severe features. A normal head CT does not exclude every neurologic complication. In a nonpregnant patient, headache likewise requires assessment before concluding that target-organ injury is absent; it is not an automatic outpatient-discharge rule. Why not the others: A — routine delayed review is unsafe in this symptomatic postpartum patient. B — rapidly normalizing pressure risks overshoot; use the obstetric emergency protocol and assess neurologic complications. D — even a medication-related contribution would not remove the need for prompt severe-pressure treatment. Course reading: Evidence for this case
Resolution and Teaching Points
Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12
She received IV labetalol 20 mg and then 40 mg; at 50 minutes her BP was 148/96 and the headache had eased. Magnesium sulfate ran for 24 hours; platelets, transaminases and creatinine repeated at six hours were unchanged; and extended-release nifedipine was increased to 60 mg daily. Her BP was checked every other day for two weeks and weekly to 12 weeks. By six weeks she was on nifedipine alone at 124/80, and her UPCR was 0.1 g/g at 10 weeks. She breastfed; enalapril (the ACE inhibitor preferred while nursing) replaced nifedipine at four months, and she chose a copper IUD — no estrogen again.
At the 12-week postpartum visit the conversation she had deferred at 26 was reopened. The right renal artery FMD was re-imaged, she chose balloon angioplasty, her pressure fell over the following months, and the ACE inhibitor was tapered off. At 34 — eight years after the work physical — her BP is 122/78 on no medication, creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (eGFR 99), UACR 15 mg/g. She is planning a second pregnancy and knows three things before she conceives: her recurrence risk is increased and needs individualized counseling; her obstetrician will restart low-dose aspirin at 12 weeks; and any ACE inhibitor or ARB should be reviewed and changed before a planned pregnancy; an unexpected positive test requires prompt cessation and clinical review. She also knows that a woman who has had preeclampsia carries a lifelong excess of cardiovascular disease and chronic kidney disease, which is why her blood pressure, UACR and creatinine are checked every year.
Clinical Pearl — Hypertension at 26 is a work-up, not a diagnosis Onset before 30 (or after 50), a young woman, hypokalemia, a bruit, resistant hypertension, paroxysms, flash pulmonary edema, asymmetric kidneys: any one is a reason to ask why. The cheap screen is a medication and substance history (OCP, NSAIDs, decongestants, stimulants, licorice, energy drinks), a BMP and a UA with UACR. Screen for primary aldosteronism with an aldosterone–renin ratio when there is resistant hypertension, a low potassium (spontaneous or on a diuretic), an adrenal nodule or early-onset hypertension — and never let a normal potassium cancel it: most people with primary aldosteronism have one.
Clinical Pearl — Hypokalemic alkalosis: let the urine chloride sort it Potassium low, bicarbonate high. Urine chloride under 20: the body is chloride- and volume-depleted (vomiting, a diuretic that has worn off, contraction) — saline and KCl fix it. Urine chloride 20 or above: something is still driving the collecting duct, and saline will not fix it; blood pressure splits the group — high in mineralocorticoid excess, normal or low with a diuretic still in use or Bartter/Gitelman syndrome. Replete magnesium first if it is low, or the potassium will not stay up.
Clinical Pearl — Renin is the fork in the road High aldosterone with suppressed renin supports autonomous adrenal production when assay thresholds, potassium and medication context fit. High renin shifts the differential toward secondary activation but is not specific to renal artery stenosis. A beaded mid-to-distal renal artery in a young adult supports FMD; selected angioplasty may improve or sometimes cure hypertension, with variable success. Atherosclerotic disease has a different risk profile and is generally managed medically, with selective revascularization decisions.
Clinical Pearl — Pregnancy rewrites the reference ranges Pregnancy lowers usual creatinine values, so assess an apparently normal result against the pregnancy context and prior values. eGFR equations are not validated for pregnancy. Confirm concerning changes and involve obstetrics/nephrology. Review ACE inhibitors and ARBs before conception and stop promptly if pregnancy occurs; use pregnancy-appropriate BP treatment.
Clinical Pearl — Two clocks for severe hypertension Non-pregnant adult at ≥180/120: ask about acute target-organ damage. Yes = emergency — IV nicardipine or labetalol, MAP down by no more than about 25% in hour one (aortic dissection and severe preeclampsia have their own targets). No = oral agent and 1–2-week follow-up; IV treatment harms. Pregnant or postpartum at ≥160/110 for 15 minutes: treat within 30–60 minutes to 140–150/90–100 whatever the symptoms; a headache or RUQ pain is a severe feature, and magnesium sulfate follows.
Pitfall — Imaging the adrenal before the biochemistry, or blocking the receptor before the draw Correct potassium and interpret aldosterone with renin, assay units, medication effects and pretest probability. Amlodipine can be practical during evaluation but is not a guarantee of an unconfounded ratio. Repeat a negative or equivocal screen when suspicion remains high; biochemical evaluation precedes adrenal localization.
Pitfall — Applying the adult "asymptomatic severe hypertension" rule to a postpartum woman "Headache only, normal exam, normal CT — oral meds and see her in two weeks" is the correct discharge for a 55-year-old man. For a woman five days after HELLP it is the discharge that precedes a seizure. Context decides the clock.
Concept Links
Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12
Assigned reading: the explanations in this case and the question-linked course evidence guide. The objective map distinguishes tested decisions from concepts taught in explanations.
Concepts: glom-04, htn-cardiorenal-01, htn-cardiorenal-02, htn-cardiorenal-03, htn-cardiorenal-04, htn-cardiorenal-06, htn-cardiorenal-08, htn-cardiorenal-11, htn-cardiorenal-12, htn-cardiorenal-13, htn-cardiorenal-14, htn-cardiorenal-15, htn-cardiorenal-18, lytes-11, lytes-25, structural-16, structural-17.