Case 06: The Breathless Farmer

Session 2 · Classroom case · 11 questions

Andrew Bland, MD, FACP, FAAP · October 2026

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Session S2 · 2026-10-27 · in-session · 37 min Anchor: Chronic kidney disease — cardiorenal: heart failure with CKD and diuretics · Integrates: AKI (cardiorenal type 1), electrolytes (hypervolemic hyponatremia, loop-diuretic signature, hyperkalemia), GDMT and how CKD changes it, apixaban dosing, NSAIDs, "renalism" One-line hook: The night team saw a creatinine of 3.1 and wrote two orders. A new PA who can read the volume exam, judge a diuretic dose at two hours, and decide which heart-failure drugs keep running through a creatinine bump decides whether this man goes home or comes back.

Learning Objectives

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11

  1. Classify a patient as congested or depleted from JVP, hepatojugular reflux, S3, edema, weight change and urine output, and state which signs are unreliable.
  2. Explain cardiorenal syndrome type 1 in plain words — venous congestion, not low output, is what usually raises the creatinine in decompensated heart failure — and name the treatment (decongestion, not fluid).
  3. Recognize hypervolemic hyponatremia and treat it with fluid restriction plus a loop diuretic, never isotonic saline.
  4. Dose a loop diuretic in CKD (IV, above the threshold, roughly double the home oral dose), judge the response at about two hours (urine output and spot urine sodium), and climb the student-level resistance ladder: stop the NSAID, double the loop, add metolazone with BMP and magnesium at least twice daily during intensive combination treatment.
  5. Apply the GDMT numbers in CKD: SGLT2 inhibitor — start at eGFR ≥20; once started, continue even below 20 until dialysis unless not tolerated (KDIGO 2024); steroidal MRA needs eGFR >30 and K⁺ <5.0; ARNI and beta-blocker continue; interpret a creatinine rise with perfusion, congestion and treatment response rather than a universal percentage cutoff; recognize and refuse "renalism."

Warm-Up (individual commit before the case)

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3

Q1Reading volume status

A 71-year-old man with heart failure arrives short of breath. Which single bedside finding most reliably tells you he is congested (volume overloaded)?

A.

Crackles at both lung bases that have not cleared with two hours of oxygen

B.

Jugular venous pressure of 12 cm with hepatojugular reflux

C.

Poor skin turgor on the back of the hand with dry mucous membranes

D.

A BUN-to-creatinine ratio above 20 on the admission chemistry panel

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: A raised JVP supports elevated right-sided filling pressure and, among these choices, is the strongest bedside congestion clue. Interpret it with symptoms, lungs, edema, weight and perfusion. It does not prove total-body volume by itself, and hepatojugular reflux adds support rather than absolute confirmation. Why not the others: A — crackles are often absent in chronic heart failure because the lung lymphatics adapt, so clear lungs do not clear the patient; C — turgor is unreliable in older adults and tests the skin, not the veins; D — BUN:Cr rises in heart failure from neurohormonal urea handling and cannot separate congestion from depletion. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q1

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Q2The four pillars

Which list names the four pillars of guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?

A.

Loop diuretic, digoxin, hydralazine with isosorbide dinitrate, ivabradine

B.

ACE inhibitor, amlodipine, low-dose aspirin, high-intensity statin

C.

Loop diuretic, beta-blocker, potassium chloride supplement, warfarin

D.

ARNI or ACEi/ARB, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, SGLT2 inhibitor

· Link to this question

Correct answer: D

Learning point: The four classes with outcome evidence in HFrEF are a RAAS strategy (sacubitril-valsartan, or an ACEi/ARB when ARNI is not feasible), one of three beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol), a steroidal MRA (spironolactone or eplerenone) and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). All four are started early at tolerated doses rather than maximizing one first, and the monitoring labs are the BMP and potassium. Why not the others: A — loop diuretics relieve congestion, but adequately powered randomized trials have not established a survival benefit; digoxin, hydralazine-nitrate and ivabradine are add-ons for selected patients; B — amlodipine and aspirin are not heart-failure drugs; C — potassium supplements and warfarin treat other problems. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q2

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Q3What ibuprofen does to a stressed kidney

A patient with heart failure on a loop diuretic and sacubitril-valsartan takes ibuprofen for back pain. By which mechanism does the ibuprofen lower his glomerular filtration rate?

A.

It blocks prostaglandin synthesis, so the afferent arteriole constricts and filtration pressure falls

B.

It constricts the efferent arteriole directly, raising the pressure inside the glomerulus until it scars

C.

It is directly toxic to proximal tubular cells and causes acute tubular necrosis within hours of a dose

D.

It precipitates as crystals in the collecting ducts and obstructs urine flow out of the nephron

· Link to this question

Correct answer: A

Learning point: In a kidney that is already under-perfused (heart failure, diuretics, volume depletion, cirrhosis), prostaglandins keep the afferent arteriole open. NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase, prostaglandin production falls, the afferent arteriole constricts, and filtration pressure drops — a hemodynamic (functional) AKI with a bland urine. Add a RAAS blocker, which prevents the efferent arteriole from compensating, and a diuretic, and you have the "triple whammy." Why not the others: B — efferent constriction is angiotensin II's job; NSAIDs act on the afferent side; C — NSAIDs can cause interstitial nephritis over days to weeks, but the common injury is hemodynamic, not tubular necrosis; D — crystal nephropathy belongs to acyclovir, methotrexate and uric acid. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q3

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Part 1 — Presentation

Answers for this section: Q4 · Q5

Mr. V., 71, dairy farmer from a township north of Dubuque, arrives by ambulance at 21:40 on a Monday in late October. Chief complaint: "I can't lie down. I've been sleeping in the recliner for five nights." He has been more short of breath for two weeks, first on the walk to the milking parlor, now crossing the kitchen. His legs are "like fence posts." He has gained weight; the scale at the heart-failure clinic read 84 kg in August and he is 91 kg tonight.

History. Ischemic cardiomyopathy after an anterior MI with two stents (2019); heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, EF 30 % on an echo three months ago (dilated left ventricle, moderate mitral regurgitation, RV systolic pressure 48 mmHg). Permanent atrial fibrillation, rate-controlled, on apixaban. Type 2 diabetes for 18 years with background retinopathy. Chronic kidney disease G4 A3 attributed to diabetic kidney disease: creatinine 2.6 mg/dL and eGFR 26 mL/min/1.73 m² (CKD-EPI 2021) three months ago, urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 880 mg/g. Metformin was stopped two years ago when his eGFR fell below 30. Hypertension. No prior hospital admission for heart failure.

Social. Milks 60 cows twice a day with his son; lifts 50-lb feed sacks. Wife manages his pill box. No alcohol, no tobacco. Eats "what the wife cooks" — ham, cheese, canned soup in winter. Fluid intake "a lot of coffee and a lot of water — the clinic told me to drink."

Review of systems. Orthopnea, three-pillow then recliner. No chest pain. No fever, cough or dysuria. Low back pain for three weeks after a fall from a hay wagon; "took something for it from the farm store." Urinating "less than usual" for a week.

Vitals. Blood pressure 118/72 mmHg, heart rate 88 and irregularly irregular, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, SpO₂ 90 % on room air → 94 % on 2 L nasal cannula, temperature 36.8 °C, weight 91.0 kg (clinic dry weight 84 kg).

Exam. Sitting bolt upright, speaking in short sentences. JVP 12 cm H₂O at 45° with a positive hepatojugular reflux. S3 gallop; irregular rhythm; 2/6 apical holosystolic murmur. Crackles to the mid-lung fields bilaterally. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin, mildly tender. 3+ pitting edema to the knees, 2+ sacral edema. Hands and feet warm; capillary refill brisk. Alert and fully oriented.

Home medications (reconciled with the wife at 22:10).

Drug Dose Route Frequency Indication
Furosemide 40 mg PO once daily HFrEF — volume control
Sacubitril-valsartan 49/51 mg PO twice daily HFrEF (ARNI pillar)
Carvedilol 12.5 mg PO twice daily HFrEF (beta-blocker pillar); AF rate control
Spironolactone 25 mg PO once daily HFrEF (MRA pillar) — started 4 years ago when eGFR was 38
Empagliflozin 10 mg PO once daily HFrEF, CKD and type 2 diabetes (SGLT2i pillar)
Apixaban 5 mg PO twice daily Stroke prevention, atrial fibrillation
Atorvastatin 40 mg PO nightly Secondary prevention after MI; CKD
Insulin glargine 18 units SC nightly Type 2 diabetes

The wife says he takes "nothing else." Nobody asks about the farm store yet.

First results at 22:30 (full table in Part 2): Na 127, K 5.3, HCO₃ 20, BUN 52, creatinine 2.6 (his baseline), glucose 148. ECG: atrial fibrillation at 88, no peaked T waves, QRS 96 ms. Chest film: cardiomegaly, pulmonary vascular congestion, small bilateral pleural effusions.

The ED resident writes: "BUN:Cr 20, Na 127, on Lasix and Jardiance — likely prerenal from over-diuresis. Hold diuretics, 500 mL NS bolus." The admitting hospitalist pauses the order and asks the student what she thinks.

Pause — commit before the reveal

Q4What is wrong with his kidneys tonight?

Creatinine 2.6 (baseline), BUN 52 (ratio 20:1), Na 127, 7 kg above dry weight, JVP 12 cm with hepatojugular reflux, S3, edema to the knees. Which statement is correct?

A.

He is intravascularly depleted from the diuretic — the BUN:Cr ratio of 20 proves it — and needs isotonic fluid before anything else

B.

His cardiac output is too low to perfuse the kidneys, so he needs an inotrope before any diuretic is given

C.

He is congested: venous pressure lowers filtration, so treat the kidneys by decongesting him

D.

The sodium of 127 means he is salt-depleted, so he needs salt tablets and a liberal-sodium diet before any diuretic

· Link to this question

Correct answer: C

Learning point: His weight gain, raised JVP and edema support substantial congestion despite the low sodium. Raised venous pressure can contribute to kidney dysfunction, while effective arterial filling can be low in the same patient. Low forward flow and other causes can coexist. A BUN:creatinine ratio of 20 alone cannot diagnose volume depletion or justify a saline bolus; reassess congestion and perfusion together. Why not the others: A — BUN:Cr about 20 is common in heart failure because angiotensin II and vasopressin make the kidney hold on to urea; a fixed ratio must never choose the treatment; B — his hands are warm and his BP is 118/72, so he is "warm and wet," not in shock; inotropes are for low-output states with cold extremities and hypotension; D — hyponatremia in heart failure is excess water, not missing salt (see Q5). Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q4

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Q5The sodium of 127

He is alert, oriented, and has no headache, nausea or confusion. Serum osmolality 283 mOsm/kg, urine osmolality 380 mOsm/kg, urine sodium 22 mmol/L (before any IV diuretic). What is the correct plan for his sodium?

A.

0.9 % saline 1 L over two hours to correct the volume depletion the BUN:Cr ratio suggests; recheck sodium at 06:00

B.

Free-water restriction of about 1.5 L/day plus an IV loop diuretic; recheck sodium at 06:00

C.

3 % saline 150 mL bolus now, repeated until the sodium rises, because a sodium of 127 is dangerously low

D.

Start tolvaptan tonight so the sodium is corrected before the diuretic is given

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: Edema, high JVP and a low urine sodium with a concentrated urine = hypervolemic hyponatremia, and it is hypotonic: effective osmolality = 2 × 127 + 148/18 = 262 mOsm/kg, because urea crosses cell membranes and is not counted — the measured 283 is misleading. The heart cannot fill the arteries well, the body reads "low effective circulating volume," antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stays on, and water is retained out of proportion to salt. The treatment is the underlying disease: restrict free water and remove salt and water together with a loop diuretic. Expect a slow rise (a few mEq/L a day); the correction ceiling of 8 mEq/L in 24 h still applies if the sodium starts to move fast. Why not the others: A adds sodium and volume to a congested patient. A urine osmolality above saline's308 alone does not establish that serum sodium will fall; urine sodium plus potassium and water balance matter. C is not indicated without attributable moderate or severe neurologic symptoms. D is a selected specialist treatment, not the first response to this presentation. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q5

Back to Q5 · All answers in this case

The saline order is cancelled. He is admitted to telemetry with fluid restriction 1.5 L/day, 2 g sodium diet, strict intake and output, daily standing weight, and furosemide 40 mg IV once, then 40 mg IV twice daily — the same milligrams as his home oral dose. Renal ultrasound is ordered for the morning.

Part 2 — Data

Answers for this section: Q6 · Q7

Overnight (Day 1 → Day 2). Urine output 400 mL in the six hours after the 40 mg IV dose. He sleeps two hours in the recliner position.

Day 2, 05:15. The 04:30 BMP is back: creatinine 3.1. At 05:30 the night resident writes "AKI — hold furosemide" and orders a 1 L normal-saline bolus.

Day 2, 06:00. Weight 90.4 kg (down 0.6 kg). JVP 12 cm. Still orthopneic.

Day 2, 07:00 — handoff. The day hospitalist suspends both the hold order and the saline bolus pending the pharmacist's reconciliation and a 2-hour spot urine sodium after the 08:00 dose, so the 08:00 furosemide 40 mg IV dose is given as scheduled.

Day 2, 08:00 — the pharmacist's call. Reconciling with the farm-store receipt the wife brought in: ibuprofen 400 mg, three to four times a day for three weeks for the back pain. It was never on the medication list.

Day 2, 10:00. A spot urine sodium drawn two hours after the 08:00 furosemide 40 mg IV dose returns 28 mmol/L; urine output in those two hours was 180 mL.

Renal ultrasound. Right kidney 9.8 cm, left 9.6 cm, increased cortical echogenicity (chronic disease), no hydronephrosis, no stones. Bladder scan after voiding: 40 mL.

Laboratory data

Test Admission 22:30 (Day 1) Day 2 06:00 Reference range
Sodium 127 mEq/L 127 mEq/L 135–145 mEq/L
Potassium 5.3 mEq/L 5.4 mEq/L 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
Chloride 98 mEq/L 97 mEq/L 98–107 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L 20 mEq/L 22–28 mEq/L
Anion gap (Na − Cl − HCO₃) 9 10 8–12
BUN 52 mg/dL 64 mg/dL 7–20 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.6 mg/dL (= baseline) 3.1 mg/dL (+19 %) 0.7–1.2 mg/dL
eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) 26 mL/min/1.73 m² (steady state, = baseline) not valid — creatinine is moving ≥60
BUN:Cr 20 21 10–20
Glucose 148 mg/dL 132 mg/dL 70–99 mg/dL (fasting)
Calcium 8.8 mg/dL (albumin-corrected 9.1) — 8.5–10.2 mg/dL
Magnesium 1.9 mg/dL 1.8 mg/dL 1.7–2.4 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4.6 mg/dL — 2.5–4.5 mg/dL
Albumin 3.6 g/dL — 3.5–5.0 g/dL
Serum osmolality (measured) 283 mOsm/kg (calculated 2×127 + 148/18 + 52/2.8 = 281) — 275–295 mOsm/kg
Effective (tonic) osmolality, calculated 262 mOsm/kg (2×127 + 148/18; urea crosses cell membranes and is not counted) — hypotonic; the measured 283 is misleading — 275–295 mOsm/kg
Hemoglobin 10.8 g/dL 10.9 g/dL 13.5–17.5 g/dL
NT-proBNP (used instead of BNP because sacubitril raises BNP) 9,800 pg/mL — <125 pg/mL (age-adjusted higher)
High-sensitivity troponin T 34 ng/L → 36 ng/L at 3 h (flat) — <14 ng/L
HbA1c 7.4 % — <5.7 %
LDL cholesterol 68 mg/dL — <70 mg/dL (very high risk)

Urine studies

Test Result Reference / comment
Urine osmolality (admission, pre-diuretic) 380 mOsm/kg 50–1,200 mOsm/kg (random); 380 = ADH is "on"
Urine sodium (admission, pre-diuretic) 22 mmol/L varies with intake; <20 mmol/L = avid retention — 22 on a daily loop diuretic is still low
Spot urine sodium, 2 h after furosemide 40 mg IV (Day 2) 28 mmol/L varies with intake; after an IV loop dose, <50–70 mmol/L = inadequate natriuretic response
Urine creatinine (Day 2 spot) 48 mg/dL 20–320 mg/dL (random)
FENa not interpretable — he is on a loop diuretic would be falsely high
Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 880 mg/g A3 (>300 mg/g); unchanged from clinic

Urinalysis (admission). Specific gravity 1.012, pH 5.5, protein 2+, glucose 2+ (expected on empagliflozin — the drug works by putting glucose in the urine), blood negative, leukocyte esterase negative, nitrite negative, ketones negative. Microscopy: 0–2 RBC/hpf, 0–2 WBC/hpf, occasional hyaline casts, no granular or muddy-brown casts, no cellular casts, no crystals.

Reading the data in order. Organ → function → mechanism → labs: the heart cannot empty, venous pressure rises, the kidney is congested and the neurohormonal system is on full (urea retained, water retained, sodium avidly reabsorbed). The sediment is bland and the ultrasound shows no obstruction, so this is not intrinsic or post-renal disease — it is a hemodynamic (functional) problem — cardiorenal syndrome type 1, acute heart failure driving acute kidney injury — and the ibuprofen has been pushing on the same lever for three weeks. The anion gap is normal (9–10), the bicarbonate of 20 is the mild non-gap acidosis of CKD G4 that also pushes his potassium up. The hemoglobin of 10.8 is the anemia of CKD; watch it — it should rise as he decongests.

The 2-hour rule. IV furosemide works within 30 minutes and is largely done by two hours. Judge every IV dose at about two hours by urine output and a spot urine sodium: above 70–100 mmol/L is a good response, 50–70 is mild resistance, 20–50 moderate, and below 20 severe. His 28 mmol/L after a dose equal to his home oral dose says the dose never cleared the threshold. In CKD the threshold is higher (less drug reaches the tubule because loop diuretics enter the urine by proximal tubular secretion, which falls with GFR), gut edema makes oral furosemide unreliable (bioavailability 10–100 %), and the NSAID blunts the response further.

Q6Judging the dose at two hours

Two hours after furosemide 40 mg IV (equal to his home oral dose), urine output is 180 mL and the spot urine sodium is 28 mmol/L. He remains 6 kg above dry weight with a JVP of 12 cm. What is the best next step?

A.

Give the next 40 mg IV dose at 20:00 as ordered; a diuretic response takes 24–48 hours to judge fairly

B.

Switch to furosemide 80 mg orally twice daily now that he is admitted, so he can go home sooner

C.

Add spironolactone 50 mg for sequential nephron blockade and leave the furosemide dose unchanged

D.

Give furosemide 80 mg IV now and reassess urine output and spot urine sodium at two hours

· Link to this question

Correct answer: D

Learning point: The initial total daily IV loop regimen can reasonably be 1–2 times the previous total daily oral dose (ESC 2021 §11.3.3); individual response determines escalation. Here urine output is 90 mL/h and urine sodium 28, below commonly used early response goals of >100–150 mL/h or >50–70 mmol/L. Double the IV dose and reassess rather than labeling the starting regimen intrinsically wrong. Integrate weight, net balance, blood pressure and symptoms with these surrogate targets. Why not the others: A — waiting a day to judge an IV diuretic wastes a day of congestion; the response is visible at two hours; B — bowel-wall edema can make oral furosemide absorption unreliable — prove the IV response first, convert to oral at the transition phase; C — spironolactone is a weak diuretic alone, takes 2–3 days to act, and with K⁺ 5.4 and acutely worsened kidney function below an estimated GFR of 30, increasing spironolactone would add hyperkalemia risk rather than provide an appropriate rapid rescue diuretic. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q6

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Pause — commit before the reveal

Q7The night team's order

At 05:30 on Day 2, before the pharmacist's call, the night resident saw creatinine 3.1 (up 19 % from 2.6), wrote "AKI — hold furosemide" and ordered a 1 L normal-saline bolus. At the 07:00 handoff the day hospitalist suspended both orders pending the pharmacist's reconciliation and the 2-hour spot urine sodium, so the bolus has not been hung; it is now 10:00 and the decision is yours. Weight 90.4 kg (dry weight 84), JVP 12 cm. You now also know about the ibuprofen and the spot urine sodium of 28. What do you do?

A.

Cancel the saline, stop the ibuprofen, continue the doubled IV loop dose, and reassess perfusion, urine output and BMP/magnesium during active escalation

B.

Hang the saline bolus, hold the diuretic for 24 hours, and recheck the creatinine at 18:00 before deciding on more fluid

C.

Hold the diuretic without fluids for 24 hours as a "diuretic holiday" so the kidney can recover before it restarts

D.

Send a FENa to settle prerenal versus ATN before changing either the diuretic or the saline order

· Link to this question

Correct answer: A

Learning point: Persistent congestion and little weight loss favor continuing monitored decongestion while stopping ibuprofen and checking perfusion and electrolytes. Modest creatinine rises can accompany effective decongestion without structural injury, but no universal 30% rule proves that a rise is benign. Intrinsic injury can coexist. Reassess hypotension, urine output, exposures and the trend; monitor potassium more promptly when it is rising and obtain BMP and magnesium at least twice daily during intensive combination diuresis. Why not the others: B adds fluid despite persistent congestion and no convincing evidence of depletion; it risks worsening pulmonary edema. C pauses decongestion without identifying hypotension, depletion or another reason to hold therapy. D delays a clinically supported decision for a test confounded by the loop diuretic. Bland sediment and normal ultrasound reduce support for some alternative causes but do not exclude intrinsic injury; perfusion, urine output and the creatinine trend still require reassessment. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q7

Back to Q7 · All answers in this case

Day 2 plan as written at 10:30. Saline cancelled. Ibuprofen stopped; acetaminophen 650 mg every 8 h as needed; topical diclofenac gel to the lumbar area. Furosemide 80 mg IV now, then 80 mg IV twice daily, response judged at two hours each dose. Fluid restriction 1.5 L/day continues. Spironolactone held (K⁺ 5.4, eGFR <30). Sacubitril-valsartan, carvedilol and empagliflozin continued. BMP and magnesium at least twice daily during active escalation; ECG if K⁺ ≥5.5. Day 2 urine output 2.2 L — the doubled dose starting to clear the threshold.

Part 3 — Course and Decisions

Answers for this section: Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11

Day 3, 06:00. Weight 89.0 kg — 5 kg above dry weight. JVP 12 cm, hepatojugular reflux still positive, S3 present, edema 2+ to the knees. He slept flat for the first time in a week, "mostly." Creatinine 3.2 (up 23 % from 2.6), BUN 66, K⁺ 5.6, Na 129, HCO₃ 21, Mg 1.7. ECG: atrial fibrillation at 84, no peaked T waves, QRS 96 ms, unchanged. The morning furosemide dose was increased to 160 mg IV; two hours later the spot urine sodium is 44 mmol/L and two-hour urine output is 150 mL.

The resident who ordered the saline, now off nights, writes on the sign-out: "Cr still climbing on high-dose Lasix — think we are over-diuresing him into prerenal AKI."

Q8Evidence update

If you were thinking "the IV furosemide is causing prerenal (volume-depletion) injury," and you then learn that on Day 3 his weight is still 5 kg above his dry weight and his JVP is 12 cm, this hypothesis becomes:

A.

Much less likely

B.

Less likely

C.

Unchanged

D.

More likely

E.

Much more likely

· Link to this question

Correct answer: A

Learning point: Persistent weight excess and a raised JVP make simple whole-body volume depletion from over-diuresis less likely. They support continuing a careful assessment for residual congestion. They do not exclude impaired arterial perfusion, excessive plasma-volume reduction during diuresis or another AKI mechanism. The decision must also use blood pressure, symptoms, urine output and the creatinine trajectory. A is the preferred formative direction; a well-justified adjacent response is acceptable. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q8

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Q9The next rung of the ladder

Day 3: still 5 kg above dry weight, JVP 12 cm, spot urine sodium 44 mmol/L two hours after furosemide 160 mg IV. Ibuprofen stopped yesterday. K⁺ 5.6, Mg 1.7, creatinine 3.2. What is the best next step in the diuretic plan?

A.

Stop the loop diuretic and give 1 L normal saline — the creatinine is still climbing on high-dose furosemide

B.

Switch to torsemide 40 mg orally today because its gut absorption is more reliable than furosemide's

C.

With the supervising team, add metolazone to IV furosemide; monitor BMP and magnesium at least twice daily

D.

Start IV acetazolamide and arrange ultrafiltration, since two rungs of the ladder have already failed

· Link to this question

Correct answer: C

Learning point: Despite a high IV loop dose, he remains congested and now has urine sodium 44 and only 75 mL/h over two hours. Discuss adding a thiazide-like diuretic with the supervising heart-failure or nephrology team. Combination treatment can produce large electrolyte and volume changes, so follow weight, net balance, blood pressure, BMP and magnesium at least twice daily initially, with earlier potassium reassessment when indicated. Metolazone is one acceptable option; acetazolamide is another selected by the treating team, and there is no universally mandatory ladder. Why not the others: A gives saline despite persistent congestion without evidence of depletion. B converts to oral therapy before establishing an adequate inpatient response. D commits to ultrafiltration prematurely; an alternative pharmacologic add-on alone could be reasonable, but automatic ultrafiltration is not justified here. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q9

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Pause — commit before the reveal

Q10GDMT by the numbers: K⁺ 5.6 on Day 3

K⁺ 5.6 mEq/L, ECG unchanged (AF at 84, no peaked T waves, QRS 96 ms), baseline eGFR 26, creatinine 3.2 and expected to fall as he decongests. Spironolactone was held yesterday; the NSAID is stopped. Which medication plan is correct?

A.

IV calcium gluconate 1 g now, then stop sacubitril-valsartan and empagliflozin until the potassium is below 5.0

B.

Keep spironolactone held, start a potassium binder and a low-potassium diet, continue the other three pillars, recheck K⁺ and ECG in the morning

C.

Stop carvedilol today — he is in decompensated heart failure, his heart rate is only 84, and the beta-blocker is holding his output down

D.

Stop all four GDMT drugs until the creatinine is back to 2.6 and the potassium is below 5.0, then restart them one at a time

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: K 5.6 needs active evaluation, treatment and prompt remeasurement; a normal ECG does not exclude danger. Stop potassium-raising contributors and keep the steroidal MRA held because eGFR is below 30 and potassium is elevated. Continue or adjust ARNI according to perfusion, potassium response and renal trajectory, using a binder when appropriate. Continue empagliflozin only if he is stable, eating and without ketosis risk; withhold during critical illness or prolonged fasting. Preserve the beta-blocker when possible, but shock, marked bradycardia or symptomatic hypotension can require adjustment. Drug benefit does not replace bedside reassessment. Why not the others: A — calcium is for ECG changes (or K⁺ ≥6.5), not for the number alone, and stopping the two drugs that protect his heart and kidneys for a manageable potassium is the wrong trade; C — carvedilol is continued through decompensation unless there is hypotension or bradycardia; withdrawal is dangerous; D — stopping GDMT "until the creatinine normalizes" is how patients leave hospital on a diuretic alone and come back in six weeks; the creatinine of 3.2 is expected and reversible. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q10

Back to Q10 · All answers in this case

Day 3 plan as written at 10:30. Metolazone 5 mg orally 30 minutes before the morning furosemide; furosemide 160 mg IV twice daily continues, judged at two hours each dose; spironolactone stays held; potassium binder started, low-potassium diet, no salt substitutes; sacubitril-valsartan, carvedilol and empagliflozin continue; BMP and magnesium at least twice daily during active escalation; ECG in the morning. Nephrology consulted for diuretic resistance (spot urine sodium 44 after 160 mg IV, K⁺ 5.6, creatinine 3.2).

Days 3–6.

Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Day 6 (discharge) Reference
Weight (kg) 89.0 87.2 85.6 84.6 (dry 84) —
Urine output (L/24 h) 2.6 3.1 2.4 1.9 —
JVP (cm H₂O) 12 9 7 6 2–8
Na (mEq/L) 129 130 131 132 135–145
K⁺ (mEq/L) 5.6 4.8 4.3 4.4 3.5–5.0
HCO₃ (mEq/L) 21 23 24 24 22–28
BUN (mg/dL) 66 62 56 50 7–20
Creatinine (mg/dL) 3.2 3.1 2.9 2.8 baseline 2.6
Mg (mg/dL) 1.7 1.6 → 2 g IV magnesium sulfate 1.9 1.9 1.7–2.4
Hemoglobin (g/dL)* 10.9 11.3 11.7 11.6 13.5–17.5

*A hemoglobin that rises during diuresis is hemoconcentration — the plasma volume shrinking around the same red cells — and is a sign of effective decongestion, not of new red-cell production.

The hemoconcentration, the falling JVP and the falling NT-proBNP (9,800 → 3,900 pg/mL on Day 5) all say the same thing: decongestion worked, and the creatinine turned the corner as it did. Metolazone is stopped on Day 5 at 85.6 kg. On Day 6 he is converted to torsemide 40 mg orally once daily — a maintenance dose, deliberately far below the decongestion dose now that he is at dry weight and off the NSAID, about twice the potency of the home furosemide 40 mg that failed him, with more predictable absorption; the heart-failure clinic titrates it against daily weights. Room air saturation 95 %, sleeping on one pillow.

Discharge planning conference, Day 6. The hospitalist: "His eGFR is 26 and he'll be on dialysis within a couple of years. I'd simplify — stop the Entresto and the Jardiance, keep the torsemide, and let nephrology sort the rest out."

Q11The discharge regimen

Which response to the hospitalist is correct?

A.

Agree — GDMT has no proven benefit once eGFR is below 30, and the fewer drugs the better in a man heading toward dialysis

B.

Stop empagliflozin only, because an eGFR of 26 is below the level at which the drug is still allowed to continue

C.

Switch sacubitril-valsartan to lisinopril tomorrow because ACE inhibitors are safer for the kidney in advanced CKD

D.

Continue sacubitril-valsartan, empagliflozin and carvedilol, BMP in one week — withholding them for CKD is "renalism"

· Link to this question

Correct answer: D

Learning point: "Renalism" is the reflex to deny kidney patients the heart therapies everyone else gets — because the trials "didn't include them," because the creatinine might move, because "he'll be on dialysis anyway" — and the CKD patient is the one with the most to lose. Cardiovascular death risk climbs steeply as eGFR falls and albuminuria rises — several-fold at G4 A3, 10–20 times once on dialysis — and most CKD patients die of their hearts before they ever reach dialysis, so the four pillars protect both organs. The rule is to adjust and monitor, not eliminate: SGLT2 inhibitor — start at eGFR ≥20; once started, continue even below 20 until dialysis unless not tolerated (KDIGO 2024), and the eGFR dip it causes is protective, not injury; the ARNI is continued in advanced CKD with potassium and creatinine monitoring; the beta-blocker needs no renal adjustment; only the steroidal MRA fails the numbers (eGFR >30, K⁺ <5.0) and stays off. CKD is also an atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk equivalent — his statin stays, and his LDL of 68 says it is doing its job. Why not the others: A — SGLT2 inhibitor trials enrolled to eGFR 20 and the benefit held; ACEi/ARB benefit extends into advanced CKD; the ARNI below eGFR 30 is continued on label guidance with potassium and creatinine monitoring (a new start at eGFR <30 would begin at 24/26 mg), not on trial data — adjust and monitor, do not abandon; B — empagliflozin is not stopped for eGFR 26 — or for 19; it runs to dialysis unless not tolerated; C — switching ARNI to an ACE inhibitor requires a 36-hour washout, gives up the ARNI's advantage over enalapril, and ACE inhibitors are not safer for the kidney — same creatinine and potassium physiology. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q11

Back to Q11 · All answers in this case

Resolution and Teaching Points

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11

Mr. V. went home on Day 6 at 84.6 kg with a written plan: weigh every morning before breakfast and call the heart-failure clinic if the weight rises by 1 kg overnight, by more than 2 kg across a week, or if he needs the recliner again. Torsemide 40 mg daily, sacubitril-valsartan 49/51 mg twice daily, carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, empagliflozin 10 mg daily, apixaban 5 mg twice daily, atorvastatin 40 mg nightly, insulin glargine 16 units nightly (eating less salt and less in general), acetaminophen and topical diclofenac for the back. Spironolactone is off the list, with the reason written on it. Ibuprofen is on the "never again" line with the mechanism in one sentence. BMP and magnesium in one week; heart-failure clinic in seven days; nephrology in three weeks.

Apixaban. With a CrCl in the 25–30 mL/min range, a student will ask whether the apixaban dose changes. The handout's table retains apixaban 5 mg twice daily at eGFR 15–29 (with caution) and avoids it below 15; the label's own dose-reduction rule (2.5 mg twice daily) turns on patient criteria — age ≥80, weight ≤60 kg, serum creatinine ≥1.5 mg/dL, two of three required — and he meets only the creatinine criterion, so 5 mg twice daily stands. Pharmacy confirms it at discharge. Apixaban is the direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) least dependent on the kidney (about 25 % renal clearance), which is why it is the usual choice in CKD G4.

Sick-day rules (SADMANS: Sulfonylureas, ACE inhibitors, Diuretics, Metformin, ARBs and ARNI, NSAIDs, SGLT2 inhibitors, plus the mineralocorticoid antagonists spironolactone, eplerenone and finerenone), written for the farmer and his wife. On a day of vomiting, diarrhea, fever or not eating: hold the SGLT2 inhibitor, ARNI, diuretic and (if ever restarted) MRA; never take an NSAID; call the clinic the same day; restart when eating and drinking normally and the clinic has checked a BMP. The beta-blocker is never stopped on his own. The statin continues.

Three weeks later at nephrology: weight 84.2 kg, creatinine 2.7, K⁺ 4.6, Na 134, Mg 2.0, Hgb 11.4. Back pain settled with physical therapy and the topical gel. The dialysis conversation is started — as education, not as a reason to take away a single heart-failure drug.

Clinical Pearl — The volume exam outranks the BUN:Cr ratio JVP, hepatojugular reflux, S3, weight against a known dry weight, and edema decide whether a creatinine rise means congestion or depletion. A ratio of 20 shows up in both. Decide from the neck, not the ratio.

Clinical Pearl — Judge a loop diuretic at two hours, and dose above the threshold IV furosemide is working or not by two hours: urine output and a spot urine sodium below 50–70 mmol/L mean the dose did not clear the threshold — double it. In CKD G4 start at about twice the home oral dose, IV, because gut edema makes oral furosemide unreliable and less drug reaches the tubule at low GFR.

Clinical Pearl — A creatinine rise during decongestion is a cost, not a stop sign Modest creatinine rises can occur during successful decongestion. The percentage alone cannot establish safety or exclude tubular injury; judge perfusion, congestion, urine output and the continuing trend.

Clinical Pearl — Metolazone requires close electrolyte monitoring Loop plus thiazide-like diuretic breaks the braking phenomenon and still works at low GFR, but potassium, magnesium and sodium fall fast. BMP and magnesium at least twice daily during active escalation while on it; replace magnesium below 1.7; stop it at dry weight.

Clinical Pearl — GDMT in CKD is adjusted, not abandoned Continue indicated heart-failure treatment as tolerated, with explicit potassium, renal and hemodynamic monitoring. Temporarily withhold SGLT2 inhibitors during critical illness, fasting or ketosis risk. Initiate steroidal MRA only with eGFR >30 and K <5.0. This patient has established ASCVD from his prior MI and needs secondary prevention; CKD by itself is not the same diagnosis.

Pitfall — Saline for a high creatinine in a patient with a JVP of 12 The single most common wrong move in cardiorenal syndrome. It adds congestion, drops the sodium (saline paradox when urine osmolality exceeds about 300), and delays the only treatment that lowers the creatinine: decongestion.

Pitfall — The medicine that is not on the list Three weeks of over-the-counter ibuprofen explained the extra creatinine, the blunted diuretic response and part of the potassium. Ask every heart-failure and CKD patient, by name, about NSAIDs from the farm store, the gas station and the medicine cabinet — and write the alternatives (acetaminophen, topical NSAID) on the discharge sheet.

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11

Assigned reading: the explanations in this case and the question-linked course evidence guide. The objective map distinguishes tested decisions from concepts taught in explanations.

Concepts: aki-19, ckd-17, ckd-26, htn-cardiorenal-09, htn-cardiorenal-19, htn-cardiorenal-20, htn-cardiorenal-21, htn-cardiorenal-22, htn-cardiorenal-23, lytes-01, lytes-07, lytes-27, structural-20.