Case 09: The Diabetic Journey

Session 3 · Classroom case · 12 questions

Andrew Bland, MD, FACP, FAAP · October 2026

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Session S3 · 2026-10-28 · in-session · 37 min Anchor: Proteinuria, hematuria and glomerular disease — nephrotic syndrome and edema from diabetic kidney disease, progressing to kidney failure · Integrates: CKD natural history and the pillars as GFR falls; nephrotic diuretics; diabetes pharmacology in CKD; anemia, mineral-bone disease and hyperkalemia as they appear; referral and KRT preparation; dialysis volume basics; the adult nephrotic differential at recognition level One-line hook: You will follow this patient for five years in your first job. The question at every visit is the same — is this still diabetes, and what do I keep, stop, start and hand off?

Author: Andrew Bland, MD, FACP, FAAP · Medical Associates Dept of Nephrology | UICOMP | UDPA | Butler COM

Learning Objectives

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12

  1. Confirm that albuminuria is persistent (first-morning repeat, more than three months) before labelling a KDIGO A-category, and name the benign causes of transient and orthostatic proteinuria.
  2. Start the kidney-protective pillars at eGFR 68 (ACE inhibitor titrated, SGLT2 inhibitor, statin) and accept a creatinine rise of up to 30 % at two weeks without stopping them.
  3. Recognize nephrotic syndrome in a diabetic from the chart, list the clues that say it may not be diabetic kidney disease, order the adult secondary-cause screen and the anti-PLA2R antibody of membranous nephropathy, and stop the NSAID.
  4. Dose an oral loop diuretic for nephrotic edema, adjust metformin, insulin, SGLT2 inhibitor and finerenone as eGFR falls, and treat a potassium of 5.5 before adding anything that raises it.
  5. Prepare for kidney replacement therapy at G4 (education, vein preservation, fistula and pre-emptive transplant referral, conservative care named), and explain why dialysis starts for symptoms and why edema on hemodialysis is interdialytic gain; recognizing anemia and mineral-bone disease from first-line labs is discussed at Visit 3, not tested.

Warm-Up (individual commit before the case)

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3

Three readiness items. They test prerequisite knowledge only; no case grades reasoning from them.

Q1Reading a UACR

A 49-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has a spot urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) of 420 mg/g. Which statement places this result correctly?

A.

A2 (moderately increased albuminuria); recheck in one year

B.

A3 (severely increased albuminuria); below nephrotic range

C.

Nephrotic-range proteinuria; she needs a kidney biopsy

D.

A1 (normal to mildly increased albuminuria); no action needed

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: The KDIGO albuminuria categories are A1 below 30 mg/g, A2 30–300 mg/g, A3 above 300 mg/g. A UACR of 420 mg/g is A3. Nephrotic range is a different and much higher bar — more than 3.5 g of protein per gram of creatinine on a UPCR, which corresponds to a UACR of roughly 2,200 mg/g or more (KDIGO). A3 means risk and the protective drugs; nephrotic range means a syndrome with its own differential. Why not the others: A) wrong band — 420 is above 300; C) confuses A3 with nephrotic range (the student UA handout's own table makes this mislabel — the facilitator should say so); D) wrong band. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q1

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Q2Nephrotic or nephritic?

Four urine pictures from four patients. Which one is the nephrotic pattern?

A.

RBC casts, dysmorphic RBCs, UPCR 1.2 g/g, blood pressure 160/100 mmHg

B.

WBC casts, sterile pyuria, urine eosinophils, a new rash on day 9 of an antibiotic

C.

4+ protein, oval fat bodies, fatty casts, 2 isomorphic RBC/hpf, serum albumin 2.1 g/dL

D.

Muddy brown granular casts, specific gravity 1.010, creatinine doubled in 48 hours

· Link to this question

Correct answer: C

Learning point: Heavy proteinuria with hypoalbuminemia and edema defines the nephrotic syndrome; hyperlipidemia and lipiduria support the pattern. The bland, fatty sediment in C fits. A nephritic pattern emphasizes glomerular bleeding and inflammation, often with RBC casts, hypertension and impaired filtration. These are patterns rather than mutually exclusive diseases: inflammatory GN can cause nephrotic-range proteinuria, and nephrotic disease can include hematuria. Why not the others: A) is the nephritic pattern; B) is acute interstitial nephritis; D) is acute tubular necrosis. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q2

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Q3Metformin at eGFR 38

A patient with type 2 diabetes takes metformin 1,000 mg twice daily. Her eGFR has been stable at 38 mL/min/1.73 m² for six months. What is the correct metformin plan?

A.

Continue 1,000 mg twice daily; metformin is a concern only below eGFR 15

B.

Stop metformin today; it is contraindicated below eGFR 45

C.

Switch to glyburide, which is safer than metformin in kidney disease

D.

Reduce to 500 mg twice daily and stop it if eGFR falls below 30

· Link to this question

Correct answer: D

Learning point: Metformin is cleared by the kidney and accumulates as GFR falls; the rare but real danger is lactic acidosis. The rules: do not start below 45, reduce between 30 and 45, stop below 30, and hold during dehydrating illness or AKI. For IV iodinated contrast, the ACR approach permits continuation with stable eGFR ≥30 and no AKI; the drug label and some local policies are stricter. Certain arterial catheter procedures also require holding. Why not the others: A) misses the reduction step; B) the stop threshold is 30, not 45 — 45 is the do-not-start line; C) glyburide's active metabolites are renally cleared and cause prolonged hypoglycemia in CKD. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q3

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Part 1 — Presentation

Answers for this section: Q4 · Q5

Visit 1 — the screening UACR

Dana Whitfield is a 49-year-old dental hygienist with type 2 diabetes for 16 years and hypertension for 8. Her last A1c was 8.4 %. Her last dilated eye exam was two years ago and was read as "normal"; she has not been back. Her mother had diabetes and died on dialysis. She does not smoke, walks the dog most evenings, and drinks a glass of wine on Fridays.

Two weeks ago she had a febrile upper respiratory infection (temperature 38.4 °C at an urgent care, where blood and urine were drawn that afternoon). She is well today and here for her routine diabetes visit. The urgent-care report is in her hand because it says "kidney protein high."

Vitals: BP 142/88 mmHg · HR 78 · T 36.8 °C · weight 92 kg · height 165 cm · BMI 33.8 kg/m² · no edema · fundi not examined (undilated).

Drug Dose Route Frequency Indication
Metformin 1,000 mg PO twice daily Type 2 diabetes
Insulin glargine 36 units SC nightly Type 2 diabetes
Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily Hypertension
Amlodipine 5 mg PO daily Hypertension

Urgent-care labs (drawn the afternoon of the febrile illness):

Test Result Reference range
Sodium 139 mEq/L 136–145
Potassium 4.4 mEq/L 3.5–5.0
Chloride 104 mEq/L 98–107
Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L 22–29
BUN 16 mg/dL 7–20
Creatinine 1.01 mg/dL 0.6–1.1
eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) 68 mL/min/1.73 m² ≥90
Glucose 198 mg/dL 70–99 (fasting)
Calcium 9.4 mg/dL 8.5–10.5
Albumin 4.1 g/dL 3.5–5.0
Hemoglobin A1c 8.4 % <5.7
LDL cholesterol 138 mg/dL <100
Total cholesterol / HDL / triglycerides 212 / 42 / 190 mg/dL <200 / >50 / <150
Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (spot, afternoon) 420 mg/g <30

Urinalysis (same afternoon sample): specific gravity 1.018, pH 5.5, protein 1+, glucose 2+, blood negative, leukocyte esterase negative, nitrite negative. Microscopy: 0–2 RBC/hpf, 0–2 WBC/hpf, no casts.

The arithmetic you should notice: BUN:creatinine is 16:1 (nothing prerenal), the anion gap is 139 − (104 + 25) = 10 (normal 8–12), and a creatinine of 1.01 in a 49-year-old woman gives an eGFR of 68 — CKD-EPI 2021, race-free. The glucose 2+ on the dipstick is what a serum glucose of 198 does; it is not a kidney finding.

Pause — commit before the reveal

Q4One sample, one label?

The UACR of 420 mg/g was collected the afternoon of a febrile illness. What is the best next step?

A.

Record CKD G2 A3 in the chart today and refer to nephrology

B.

Repeat a first-morning UACR once she is well, before any label

C.

Order a 24-hour urine protein as the definitive quantification

D.

Order a renal ultrasound and refer to urology for cystoscopy

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: Fever, hard exercise, stress and seizures push protein into the urine for a day or two — transient proteinuria — and standing up all day does the same in some tall, thin young people — orthostatic proteinuria, which is benign and needs no workup once a first-morning sample is clean. A kidney label is a lifelong label; it rests on a first-morning sample collected when the patient is well, and chronic kidney disease requires the abnormality to persist for more than three months. Her repeat first-morning UACR two weeks later is 380 mg/g, and a third at three months is 350 mg/g. Now she is honestly G2 A3. Why not the others: A) labels her from one sick-day sample; C) 24-hour collections are error-prone and add nothing a confirmed spot UACR does not; D) a urologic workup is for hematuria without proteinuria, and she has neither blood nor a reason to look for a tumor. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q4

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What the confirmed A3 means, and what you start

The natural history of diabetic kidney disease runs in order: years of silent hyperfiltration, then albumin in the urine, then — often years later — a falling GFR. Albuminuria comes first. That is why every patient with type 2 diabetes gets a UACR and an eGFR every year, and why A3 moves the check to every six months.

Dana leaves Visit 1 with the kidney-protective "pillars" started at an eGFR of 68, not at 30:

The two-week BMP: creatinine 1.21 mg/dL (up 20 % from 1.01), potassium 4.8 mEq/L, eGFR about 55. Blood pressure 132/80. No dizziness.

Q5The creatinine rose

Two weeks after lisinopril was raised to 20 mg and empagliflozin 10 mg was started, creatinine is 1.21 mg/dL (from 1.01) and potassium is 4.8 mEq/L. She feels well. What is the right action?

A.

Stop lisinopril — the rise means the kidney is being injured

B.

Stop empagliflozin — the eGFR has now fallen below 60

C.

Continue both drugs and recheck the BMP in two weeks

D.

Hold both drugs and order a renal artery duplex today

· Link to this question

Correct answer: C

Learning point: Both drugs lower the pressure inside the glomerulus — that is the point — and a lower filtration pressure means a lower eGFR for as long as the drug is on board. The expected drop is 10–30 % within the first weeks; then it plateaus, and over years the slope of decline is flatter than it would have been. Accept a creatinine rise of up to 30 %, recheck in two weeks, continue, and titrate lisinopril to 40 mg at six weeks as planned. A rise above 30 %, or one that keeps climbing, is the signal to look for volume depletion, an NSAID, or renal artery stenosis. Why not the others: A) stops the most important kidney drug she owns for an expected 20 % rise; B) the SGLT2 inhibitor is started at eGFR 20 or above and continued below that once started — 55 is not a reason; D) a duplex is for a rise above 30 % or a progressive one, unexplained hypokalemia, a bruit, or flash pulmonary edema. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q5

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By six months: lisinopril 40 mg, BP 128/78, UACR 210 mg/g (A2 — albuminuria is the one target in kidney disease that still moves), eGFR 60, A1c 7.9 %.

Visit 2 — eighteen months later: "My legs and my face are swollen"

Dana is now 50. She has gained 9 kg in six weeks — a puffy face in the morning, shoes that do not fit by noon — and her urine has been "foamy, like beer" for two months. Two fasting glucose readings in the 60s led the covering PA to cut glargine from 36 to 28 units; Dana is pleased her sugars "finally look better." For her right knee she has taken two over-the-counter naproxen 220 mg tablets twice a day for four months — "I didn't think it counted." Five days ago the covering PA started furosemide 40 mg daily by phone; her weight is down 0.3 kg.

Vitals: BP 152/92 mmHg · HR 84 · T 36.9 °C · weight 101 kg (from 92) · SpO₂ 97 % on room air.

Exam: periorbital edema; 3+ pitting edema to both thighs and over the sacrum; decreased breath sounds at both bases; shifting dullness; no jugular venous distension; no S3; no rash, no synovitis.

Drug Dose Route Frequency Indication
Metformin 1,000 mg PO twice daily Type 2 diabetes (eGFR 58 — no change yet)
Insulin glargine 28 units (from 36) SC nightly Type 2 diabetes — reduced for fasting lows
Lisinopril 40 mg PO daily Hypertension, albuminuria
Amlodipine 5 mg PO daily Hypertension
Empagliflozin 10 mg PO daily Kidney protection (started Visit 1)
Atorvastatin 40 mg PO daily Dyslipidemia
Furosemide 40 mg PO daily (5 days) Edema — started by phone
Naproxen (OTC) 440 mg PO twice daily × 4 months Knee osteoarthritis — not on the med list until asked

Part 2 — Data

Answers for this section: Q6 · Q7 · Q8

Visit 2 labs

Test Result Reference range
Sodium 137 mEq/L 136–145
Potassium 4.6 mEq/L 3.5–5.0
Chloride 105 mEq/L 98–107
Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L 22–29
BUN 22 mg/dL 7–20
Creatinine 1.15 mg/dL 0.6–1.1
eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) 58 mL/min/1.73 m² ≥90
Glucose 134 mg/dL 70–99
Calcium 8.1 mg/dL (albumin-corrected 9.6) 8.5–10.5
Albumin 2.1 g/dL 3.5–5.0
Total protein 5.2 g/dL 6.0–8.0
Hemoglobin A1c 7.6 % <5.7
LDL cholesterol 210 mg/dL (on atorvastatin 40 mg) <100
Total cholesterol / HDL / triglycerides 318 / 40 / 240 mg/dL <200 / >50 / <150
BNP 48 pg/mL <100
Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio 7.8 g/g <0.15
Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 6,100 mg/g <30

Urinalysis (first-morning, not during menses): specific gravity 1.020, pH 6.0, protein 4+ (>500 mg/dL), blood trace, glucose 3+, leukocyte esterase negative, nitrite negative. Microscopy: 3–5 RBC/hpf, round and uniform (isomorphic), no RBC casts, 0–2 WBC/hpf, oval fat bodies present, fatty casts with Maltese crosses under polarized light, occasional hyaline casts.

Renal ultrasound: right kidney 12.2 cm, left 12.0 cm, normal cortical echogenicity, no hydronephrosis. Chest radiograph: small bilateral pleural effusions. Echocardiogram (ordered for the effusions): ejection fraction 60 %, normal right ventricle, no pericardial effusion.

Check the numbers. Anion gap 137 − (105 + 24) = 8; add 2.5 for each 1 g/dL of albumin below 4 → corrected gap 13, upper-normal. BUN:creatinine 19:1 — mild, consistent with five days of diuretic. The calcium of 8.1 is a low-albumin artifact: corrected calcium = 8.1 + 0.8 × (4 − 2.1) = 9.6. The glucose 3+ on the dipstick is empagliflozin doing its job, not poor control — it will read 3+ for as long as she takes the drug.

Naming what you see

She meets every criterion of nephrotic syndrome: UPCR 7.8 g/g (nephrotic range is above 3.5), albumin 2.1 g/dL (below 3), edema to the thighs with effusions and ascites, and an LDL of 210 despite a statin. The sediment is bland except for lipid — the fat in the urine is the leaked lipoprotein being swept up by tubular cells. Trace blood with 3–5 round RBCs and no casts is not an active sediment; an active sediment is dysmorphic RBCs, acanthocytes (ring-shaped red cells with blebs — a glomerular bleeding sign), or RBC casts.

Why she is swollen, in plain words. Albumin is the protein that holds water inside blood vessels. When the filter leaks it into the urine faster than the liver can make it, water drifts out of the capillaries into the tissues — the underfill picture, and the one textbooks drew for decades. In most adults, though, the damaged kidney also hangs on to sodium directly at the far end of the tubule, so blood volume is normal or high — the overfill picture — and blood pressure runs up, as hers has. Either way the treatment is the same: get the sodium out with a loop diuretic and keep it out with a low-sodium diet. Albumin infusions are not routine; they leak out again within hours.

Why the LDL is 210 on a statin. A liver that is pouring out albumin to replace what is lost also pours out lipoproteins. Nephrotic hyperlipidemia is a feature of the syndrome, treated with a statin at full dose, and it resolves when the proteinuria does.

Pause — commit before the reveal

Q6Is this still diabetes?

A 50-year-old woman with 16 years of type 2 diabetes, confirmed A3 albuminuria eighteen months ago, now presents with nephrotic syndrome (UPCR 7.8 g/g, albumin 2.1 g/dL, LDL 210 mg/dL), trace blood with 3–5 isomorphic RBC/hpf and no casts, eGFR 58, no eye exam in two years, and four months of over-the-counter naproxen. What is the best next step?

A.

Attribute the proteinuria to diabetic kidney disease, increase the furosemide, and see her in three months

B.

Stop the naproxen, send the adult secondary-cause screen with anti-PLA2R, and refer to nephrology this week

C.

Arrange a kidney biopsy before any serology, because every adult with new nephrotic syndrome is biopsied

D.

Start prednisone 60 mg daily for presumed minimal change disease and recheck the UPCR in one month

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: Diabetic kidney disease is the leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in a diabetic, but it is a diagnosis you earn by checking that nothing else fits. The clues that say "maybe not diabetes" are: nephrotic-range proteinuria that arrives suddenly or with a short diabetes duration, hematuria or an active sediment, no retinopathy, a rapid GFR decline, and positive serologies. She has one soft clue (a sudden jump to nephrotic range), one equivocal one (trace blood, but isomorphic and castless), one unknown (the eye exam), and one real confounder — an NSAID. NSAIDs cause minimal change disease and membranous nephropathy, not only interstitial nephritis; they also raise blood pressure and potassium and blunt every diuretic. Stop it today. Every adult with new nephrotic syndrome gets the secondary-cause screen — glucose and A1c, HIV, hepatitis B and C, ANA with complements (C3 and C4), serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) with serum free light chains (especially over 50 or when dipstick protein is lower than the UPCR suggests) — and anti-PLA2R when membranous nephropathy is suspected, without an age-40 restriction (the membranous nephropathy antibody). Nephrotic syndrome in an adult is a referral. Why not the others: A) anchors on the diagnosis she already carries and never asks the question; C) biopsy is nephrology's decision, made after the serologies and after checking the contraindications (uncontrolled blood pressure, bleeding risk or anticoagulation, a small or solitary kidney) — and classic diabetic kidney disease is usually not biopsied; D) steroids are never a student's or a primary-care decision, and minimal change disease in an adult is a biopsy diagnosis, not an empiric one. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q6

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Pause — commit before the reveal

Q7The diuretic that did not work

Furosemide 40 mg by mouth once daily for five days has produced a 0.3 kg weight loss. Albumin is 2.1 g/dL; she has gut-wall edema and ascites. What is the best diuretic plan?

A.

Increase to furosemide 80 mg by mouth twice daily and restrict sodium to below 2 g/day

B.

Add metolazone 5 mg daily to the current furosemide dose now and recheck labs twice weekly

C.

Switch furosemide to hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily and restrict sodium to below 2 g/day

D.

Admit for daily intravenous albumin infusions and continue furosemide 40 mg daily

· Link to this question

Correct answer: A

Learning point: Nephrotic patients need more loop diuretic, by mouth, more often. Oral furosemide's absorption is unreliable in anyone (10–100 %) and worse when the gut wall is swollen; the drug reaches its site of action by being secreted into the tubule, and low albumin reduces that delivery. Once-daily dosing leaves 16 hours in which the kidney claws the sodium back. So: 80 mg twice daily, a sodium limit below 2 g/day (the diuretic cannot outrun a salty diet), and a target of 0.5–1 kg a day — faster than that empties the blood volume and buys an acute kidney injury, the lesson of the "resistant heart failure" patient on the website. Weight, potassium and creatinine twice a week catch both failure and overshoot. Metolazone is the step you add only when a good loop dose has plateaued, with labs at least twice weekly because the combination wastes potassium, sodium and magnesium. Why not the others: B) adding a thiazide-type diuretic to the loop (sequential nephron blockade) is step two, after an adequate loop dose and a true plateau; C) a thiazide alone is too weak for this volume of edema and adds nothing a loop has not already done; D) albumin co-infusion is reserved for refractory hypoalbuminemia and is a nephrology decision — most of it leaks into the urine within a day. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q7

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Q8What else can go wrong

Which action best reduces her risk from the complications of nephrotic syndrome?

A.

Start warfarin today because her albumin is 2.1 g/dL and she is at risk of a clot

B.

Hold atorvastatin until the albumin recovers, then restart it at the previous dose

C.

Restrict fluid to 1 L/day in place of the 2-g sodium restriction and the dietitian visit

D.

Give pneumococcal vaccine, raise the statin, and teach clot and infection warning signs

· Link to this question

Correct answer: D

Learning point: The urine carries away more than albumin. It loses antithrombin and protein S while the liver overproduces fibrinogen — so nephrotic patients clot: deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis (flank pain, new hematuria, a sudden creatinine jump), highest in membranous nephropathy and when albumin is below 2–2.5 g/dL. It loses immunoglobulins — so they get infections with encapsulated bacteria, which is why the pneumococcal vaccine is given now. The liver's lipoprotein surge is why the statin goes up, not away. And over-diuresis causes acute kidney injury. Whether to anticoagulate prophylactically is a weighed decision made with nephrology, balancing clot risk against bleeding; it is not a primary-care reflex. Why not the others: A) prophylactic anticoagulation is a referral question, and warfarin started by phone for a lab value is how bleeding happens; B) nephrotic hyperlipidemia is an indication for the statin, not a reason to stop it; C) sodium drives the water — fluid restriction alone makes her thirsty, not drier. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q8

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Visit 2 plan, written out: naproxen stopped — acetaminophen 650 mg every 8 hours as needed for the knee; furosemide 80 mg twice daily; sodium below 2 g/day with a dietitian visit; atorvastatin 80 mg; lisinopril 40 mg and empagliflozin continue; pneumococcal conjugate vaccine today; home weight log; BMP twice weekly; dilated eye exam this week; nephrology in one week; glargine stays at 28 units with hypoglycemia teaching — a nephrotic patient eats less and empagliflozin spills glucose, so her insulin need has genuinely fallen.

Part 3 — Course and Decisions

Answers for this section: Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12

The nephrology visit — and the eye exam comes back

One week later Dana sees nephrology. The serologies are pending. The dilated eye exam from Tuesday is in the chart: no diabetic retinopathy.

Q9Evidence update

If you were thinking this is still diabetic kidney disease, and you then learn that a dilated eye exam this week shows no diabetic retinopathy, this hypothesis becomes:

A.

Much less likely

B.

Less likely

C.

Unchanged

D.

More likely

E.

Much more likely

· Link to this question

Correct answer: B

Learning point: Absence of diabetic retinopathy lowers confidence in DKD but does not exclude it, especially in type 2 diabetes. It does not determine the size of a probability update. Her abrupt nephrotic syndrome and NSAID exposure require nephrology assessment for a superimposed disease even with bland sediment and negative serologies. Biopsy versus an explicitly monitored short interval of observation is individualized; a bland urine and normal eye examination do not automatically justify waiting 8–12 weeks. Why not the others: A versus B expresses the strength of an individual clinical judgment; accept a justified adjacent category in this formative item. C neglects potentially relevant evidence, while D/E move toward DKD without a convincing reason. Retinopathy itself would support, not prove, DKD. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q9

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The serologies return

ANA, C3 and C4, hepatitis B surface antigen, hepatitis C antibody, HIV, SPEP with serum free light chains, and anti-PLA2R all return normal or negative; the A1c is 7.6 %.

Nephrology's note, in plain words: DKD is plausible, but abrupt nephrotic syndrome and NSAID exposure leave a possible second glomerular disease. Discuss biopsy now. In this fictional course, after shared decision-making and review of bleeding risk, the team chooses a closely monitored interval off the NSAID, with an early clinical and laboratory review and a biopsy if recovery is inadequate or kidney function worsens. Deferral is an individual decision, not a rule based on bland sediment or negative serologies.

The subsequent course showed improvement but did not itself establish the histologic diagnosis. Eight weeks off naproxen, on lisinopril 40 mg, empagliflozin, furosemide 80 mg twice daily and a 2-g sodium diet, she weighs 93 kg and her UPCR is 4.1 g/g. At six months: UPCR 3.0 g/g, albumin 3.0 g/dL, edema gone, furosemide back to 40 mg twice daily, LDL 96 mg/dL on atorvastatin 80 mg.

The adult nephrotic differential at recognition level — minimal change disease, FSGS, membranous nephropathy and diabetic kidney disease, each with its typical patient, its chart clues and the student's first move — is reviewed in CBL-23 and CBL-24.

Three and a half years after Visit 1 — Visit 3

Dana is 52. Between visits her eGFR crossed 45 (metformin reduced to 500 mg twice daily) and then 41, at which point semaglutide was started and titrated to 1 mg weekly for an A1c of 7.8 % and her weight; glargine came down to 22 units. Then her eGFR fell faster than nephrology had expected — 58 to the low 30s by year three — so a kidney biopsy was done: advanced diabetic glomerulosclerosis, no second disease; the pillars continued. Today she is tired, her legs swell by evening, and she gets calf cramps at night. Since she was told to cut sodium she has been using a potassium-chloride salt substitute "so food tastes like something."

Vitals: BP 138/84 mmHg · HR 76 · weight 90 kg · 1+ ankle edema · lungs clear · no rub.

Drug Dose Route Frequency Indication
Lisinopril 40 mg PO daily Albuminuria, hypertension
Empagliflozin 10 mg PO daily Kidney protection (started at eGFR 68)
Atorvastatin 80 mg PO daily Dyslipidemia
Amlodipine 5 mg PO daily Hypertension
Furosemide 40 mg PO twice daily Edema
Insulin glargine 22 units SC nightly Type 2 diabetes — falling requirement
Semaglutide 1 mg SC weekly Type 2 diabetes, weight, cardiovascular risk
Metformin 500 mg PO twice daily Type 2 diabetes — to be stopped today (eGFR 21; the stop line of 30 was crossed between visits)
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 8 h as needed Knee pain (naproxen stopped at Visit 2)
Test Result Reference range
Sodium 138 mEq/L 136–145
Potassium 5.5 mEq/L 3.5–5.0
Chloride 107 mEq/L 98–107
Bicarbonate 19 mEq/L 22–29
BUN 46 mg/dL 7–20
Creatinine 2.7 mg/dL 0.6–1.1
eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) 21 mL/min/1.73 m² ≥90
Glucose 118 mg/dL 70–99
Hemoglobin A1c 6.9 % <5.7
Calcium 8.7 mg/dL 8.5–10.5
Phosphorus 5.6 mg/dL 2.5–4.5
Albumin 3.2 g/dL 3.5–5.0
Intact PTH 240 pg/mL 15–65
25-OH vitamin D 18 ng/mL 30–100
Alkaline phosphatase 96 U/L 30–120
Hemoglobin 9.4 g/dL 12.0–15.5
MCV 84 fL 80–100
Ferritin 80 ng/mL 30–300
Transferrin saturation (TSAT) 15 % 20–50
Vitamin B12 480 pg/mL 200–900
Folate 12 ng/mL >4
Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 1,900 mg/g (UPCR 2.9 g/g) <30
ECG sinus rhythm, normal PR and QRS, no peaked T waves —
Kidney Failure Risk Equation (4-variable, North American calibration) 2-year about 41 %, 5-year about 81 % —

Arithmetic first. Anion gap 138 − (107 + 19) = 12; albumin-corrected 14 — the mild retention acidosis of G4 (the kidney can no longer excrete the day's acid). BUN:creatinine 17:1. Creatinine 2.7 in a 52-year-old woman is an eGFR of 21: G4, A3. Potassium 5.5 with a normal ECG — the 5.1–5.9 band, where the ECG is usually normal and calcium is not indicated.

Four new problems have arrived together, and each has a first-line answer a student should own:

And one old problem: BP 138/84 is above the <130/80 goal for CKD — amlodipine goes to 10 mg today (lisinopril is already maximal).

And the diabetes is "better." Glucose 118, A1c 6.9 — the chart looks like success. It is not. The kidney clears about a third of the body's insulin and makes new glucose when she fasts; as it fails, injected insulin lasts longer and the fasting floor drops. Her appetite is falling. And the A1c is unreliable in advanced CKD — shortened red-cell survival and ESAs read it low, iron deficiency reads it high — so her glucose log and sensor, not the A1c, decide the next dose. Glargine comes down to 18 units today. Hypoglycemia is the diabetic complication that arrives at G4.

Pause — commit before the reveal

Q10What stays, what stops, what waits

eGFR 21, potassium 5.5 mEq/L with a normal ECG, UACR 1,900 mg/g on lisinopril 40 mg and empagliflozin 10 mg. What is the best next step for her kidney-protective regimen?

A.

Add finerenone 10 mg daily to lower the albuminuria further

B.

Stop empagliflozin because the eGFR has fallen below 30

C.

Stop lisinopril because the potassium has risen to 5.5

D.

Treat the potassium first and keep both kidney drugs

· Link to this question

Correct answer: D

Learning point: Do not initiate finerenone: potassium 5.5 exceeds its initiation limit and eGFR 21 is below its recommended initiation threshold of 25. Correct reversible potassium contributors and arrange close follow-up while preserving tolerated kidney-protective treatment when safe. An established SGLT2 inhibitor need not be stopped simply for crossing eGFR 30. Continued ACE-inhibitor treatment requires monitoring and may need interruption if hyperkalemia remains uncontrolled despite treatment. Metformin should already have stopped below eGFR 30. Why not the others: A violates both finerenone entry criteria; B uses an incorrect SGLT2 stop threshold; C automatically removes RAAS protection before addressing treatable potassium contributors. D is appropriate with monitoring and escalation if potassium cannot be controlled. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q10

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Q11Preparing for what comes next

Her 4-variable Kidney Failure Risk Equation result is about 41 % at 2 years (about 81 % at 5 years). She is 52, works full time, and her sister has offered a kidney. What should happen at this visit?

A.

Place a PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) so intravenous iron can be given at home

B.

Book a dialysis start date for when the eGFR reaches 15 and revisit the options with her then

C.

Start kidney-replacement education today and refer for fistula and transplant evaluation

D.

Defer the kidney-replacement conversation until uremic symptoms make dialysis necessary

· Link to this question

Correct answer: C

Learning point: KDIGO 2024 puts action thresholds on the KFRE: a 5-year risk of 3–5 % is a nephrology referral, a 2-year risk above 10 % is multidisciplinary care, and a 2-year risk above 40 % is modality education, access planning and transplant preparation. Her 2-year risk of about 41 % is past that 40 % line today, and her slope — eGFR 58 to 21 in two years, 15 within months — says the same; KDIGO 2024 and KDOQI also support kidney-replacement education, vein preservation, vascular-surgery referral and pre-emptive transplant referral at an eGFR of about 20. Education starts at G4 because every option takes months: a fistula takes months to be usable and transplant evaluation takes most of a year — so every referral goes today, and a pre-emptive living-donor transplant, before any dialysis, is the best outcome available. The options are told in plain words: in-center hemodialysis three times a week for about four hours; home hemodialysis; peritoneal dialysis through a belly catheter, usually overnight at home; transplant; and conservative kidney management — active, symptom-focused care without dialysis, which is a real option for a frail or very old patient or anyone who chooses it. The surprise question — "would I be surprised if she died in the next year?" — is answered yes, I would be surprised for a 52-year-old with no other major illness, which is why she is a transplant candidate; but the option is always named. Vein preservation starts today: no PICC, no IV, no blood pressure cuff in the non-dominant arm, because a PICC scars the very veins a fistula needs. Why not the others: A) a PICC line is the single most destructive thing you can do to a future fistula arm — central vein stenosis and thrombosis follow, and patients with a prior PICC are about three times as likely to have no working fistula; B) dialysis does not start at a number — it starts for symptoms or complications, and booking it at 15 ignores the IDEAL trial; D) a late conversation is how patients start dialysis through an emergency catheter in the neck. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q11

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Five years after Visit 1 — Visit 4

Dana is 54. She is nauseated most mornings, itches at night, says food "tastes like a penny," and has lost 4 kg because she is not hungry. She is sleeping badly. No chest pain, no breathlessness at rest, no confusion. A left brachiocephalic fistula was created five months ago and vascular surgery cleared it for use two weeks ago; it has a good thrill and bruit. She is on the transplant list, and her sister's evaluation is under way.

Vitals: BP 148/86 mmHg · HR 80 · weight 86 kg · SpO₂ 97 % · pale · 1+ ankle edema · lungs clear · no pericardial rub · no asterixis.

The four drugs that change at this visit:

Drug Dose Route Frequency Indication
Lisinopril 40 mg PO daily Albuminuria, hypertension — continues for now
Empagliflozin 10 mg PO daily Continued until dialysis starts
Furosemide 80 mg PO twice daily Volume — she still makes urine
Insulin glargine 12 units SC nightly Type 2 diabetes — requirement still falling

Unchanged or nephrology-managed since Visit 3: atorvastatin 80 mg, amlodipine 10 mg, semaglutide 1 mg weekly, patiromer 8.4 g daily (the binder that lets the ACE inhibitor stay), a non-calcium phosphate binder with meals, sodium bicarbonate 650 mg twice daily, cholecalciferol 2,000 IU daily, and darbepoetin every two weeks after intravenous iron.

Test Result Reference range
Sodium 136 mEq/L 136–145
Potassium 5.3 mEq/L (on patiromer) 3.5–5.0
Chloride 104 mEq/L 98–107
Bicarbonate 17 mEq/L 22–29
BUN 92 mg/dL 7–20
Creatinine 5.3 mg/dL 0.6–1.1
eGFR (CKD-EPI 2021) 9 mL/min/1.73 m² ≥90
Glucose 96 mg/dL 70–99
Hemoglobin A1c 6.4 % (unreliable — anemia, ESA) <5.7
Calcium 8.4 mg/dL 8.5–10.5
Phosphorus 6.4 mg/dL 2.5–4.5
Intact PTH 410 pg/mL 15–65
Albumin 3.5 g/dL 3.5–5.0
Hemoglobin 9.9 g/dL 12.0–15.5
Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio 1.8 g/g <0.15
Urine output (patient log) about 1.2 L/day —
ECG sinus rhythm, no peaked T waves, normal intervals —

Anion gap 136 − (104 + 17) = 15, albumin-corrected 16 — the acidosis of G5. BUN:creatinine 17:1. Creatinine 5.3 in a 54-year-old woman is an eGFR of 9.

The dialysis decision is made by her symptoms, not by the 9. Run the emergencies first — the AEIOU list, each of which is a same-day call to nephrology: Acidosis that is severe and refractory (hers is 17, treated, not that); Electrolytes — refractory hyperkalemia with ECG changes (5.3 on a binder with a normal ECG is not that); Ingestion of a dialyzable toxin (no); Overload — pulmonary edema unresponsive to diuretics (lungs clear); Uremia with pericarditis, encephalopathy or bleeding (no rub, no confusion, no bleeding). None present. What she does have is the ordinary uremic syndrome: anorexia, nausea, pruritus, dysgeusia, weight loss, fatigue, poor sleep — and that, with an eGFR under 10 and every medical lever already pulled, is the elective indication. The IDEAL trial randomized people to start dialysis "early" at an eGFR of 10–14 or "late" when symptoms demanded it (planned eGFR 5–7, though most started earlier for symptoms — mean 9.8) and found no difference in survival, hospitalization or quality of life; the late group simply spent less of their lives on a machine. So she starts in-center hemodialysis next week through the fistula she has been protecting for eighteen months, with a plan to move to home dialysis or transplant. Empagliflozin stops at dialysis start. Glargine comes down to 8 units. Furosemide continues — she still makes urine. Lisinopril continues for now.

The first month on hemodialysis

The unit sets her dry weight — the weight at which she leaves dialysis neither swollen nor cramping and faint — at 84 kg. On the first Monday of her second month she arrives at 88 kg, 4 kg above dry weight, with 2+ edema to the knees, breathless on the stairs, BP 162/92. Her gain from Friday's treatment to Monday was 4 kg. She still makes about 600 mL of urine a day. Her food diary shows deli meat, canned soup and a salted-pretzel habit — about 4 g of sodium a day.

Q12Edema on dialysis

In her first month on hemodialysis she arrives 4 kg above dry weight with 2+ edema, an interdialytic gain of 4 kg over the long weekend, 600 mL/day of residual urine, and about 4 g/day of sodium in her diet. Which statement is correct?

A.

The edema is interdialytic gain: dry weight, less sodium, and the loop diuretic stays

B.

Furosemide 80 mg twice daily should be stopped now that hemodialysis removes her fluid

C.

Spironolactone should be added for the edema and the blood pressure of 162/92

D.

Intravenous albumin before each session will pull the edema back into the blood

· Link to this question

Correct answer: A

Learning point: On hemodialysis, fluid leaves the body three times a week; everything she drinks between sessions, and everything her 600 mL of urine does not remove, is the interdialytic gain that the machine must take off next time. A 4-kg gain means 4 L removed in four hours — which is how cramps, hypotension and a stunned heart happen — so the gain, not the dialysis, is the thing to fix. Sodium drives thirst; a 2-g sodium diet is the lever, with a fluid allowance the unit sets (typically about a liter plus her urine output). Dry weight is nephrology's number and moves with her nutrition; it is reassessed, not assumed. And residual kidney function is precious: as long as she makes urine, the loop diuretic still works, protects her from gains, and stays — it is stopped only when she is anuric. Why not the others: B) the loop stays while there is residual urine — stopping it hands the whole fluid job to the machine; C) spironolactone is avoided at eGFR below 30 and whenever potassium runs above 5, and her potassium is 5.3; D) albumin is not a treatment for dialysis volume, and her albumin is 3.5 — the edema is salt and water, not a leaking filter. Course reading: Evidence for this case

Evidence and objective for Q12

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Resolution and Teaching Points

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12

Six months into dialysis Dana's dry weight is 83 kg and her gains run under 2 kg. The edema is gone. The itching eased when her phosphorus came under 5.5. Her hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dL on iron and a modest ESA dose. She works four days a week. Her sister was cleared as a living donor, and a transplant is scheduled — not pre-emptive, which was the goal, but eleven months after her first treatment, which is a very good outcome. The question at each of her four visits was the same — is this still diabetes, and what do I keep, stop, start and hand off? — and at each one the answer was found by checking the chart against a short list, not by guessing.

Clinical Pearl — Albuminuria first, GFR later Albuminuria can precede GFR decline, as in this case, but nonalbuminuric DKD also occurs. Screen with both UACR and eGFR. Confirm persistent abnormalities and exclude transient causes before applying a chronic diagnosis; a first-morning sample improves confirmation but is not the only valid specimen.

Clinical Pearl — Start the pillars at 68, not 30, and accept the dip ACE inhibitor titrated to full dose, SGLT2 inhibitor started at any eGFR of 20 or above, statin. Both kidney drugs lower pressure inside the glomerulus, so creatinine rises 10–30 % and then plateaus — that rise may be hemodynamic, and must be interpreted with potassium, perfusion and the trend. Recheck at two weeks; continue. As GFR falls: SGLT2 inhibitor continues to dialysis; finerenone waits for a potassium of 5.0 or below; metformin reduces below 45 and stops below 30; insulin requirements fall and the A1c lies.

Clinical Pearl — A diabetic's nephrotic syndrome is diabetes until the clues say otherwise Sudden nephrotic onset, short diabetes duration, hematuria or an active sediment, no retinopathy, rapid GFR decline, positive serologies — any of these earns the adult secondary-cause screen (A1c, HIV, hepatitis B and C, ANA with C3/C4, SPEP and free light chains, anti-PLA2R when membranous nephropathy is suspected) and a referral. Stop the NSAID: it causes minimal change disease and membranous nephropathy as well as interstitial nephritis. Biopsy is nephrology's decision, made after the serologies and the contraindications.

Clinical Pearl — Nephrotic diuretics are oral, bigger, and twice a day In this stable outpatient, increasing loop dose and frequency with sodium restriction is reasonable. Poor absorption or refractory edema may require IV treatment; oral therapy is not a universal rule. Individualize weight-loss goals and monitor blood pressure, kidney function and electrolytes. Add-on diuretics and prophylactic anticoagulation require an individualized risk assessment.

Clinical Pearl — Prepare at G4; start dialysis for symptoms KDIGO 2024 uses 2-year kidney-failure risk >10% to help plan multidisciplinary care and >40% to help time modality education and preparation. Choose transplantation, dialysis modality, access or conservative care with the patient; fistula referral is not automatic for every person. Preserve vessels in both arms and obtain access-team advice before a PICC. Start dialysis from the composite clinical picture, not eGFR alone; tailor ultrafiltration to tolerance and continue a loop only while useful.

Pitfall — Stopping the drugs that protect the kidney Avoid stopping protective treatment solely for a modest stable hemodynamic creatinine rise. Manage reversible hyperkalemia where possible, but adjust treatment if potassium remains uncontrolled or acute illness intervenes. A normal ECG cannot establish potassium safety. Continue an established SGLT2 inhibitor below its initiation threshold when tolerated, with sick-day precautions.

Pitfall — The PICC line in the fistula arm A G4 patient who "needs IV iron" gets a PICC, the upper-arm vein it was threaded through scars and the central vein stenoses, and two years later there is no fistula — she starts dialysis through a catheter in her neck with the infection and mortality that come with it. Vein preservation is a standing order from the day the KFRE is high, written in the chart and on the patient's wristband.

Answers for this section: Q1 · Q2 · Q3 · Q4 · Q5 · Q6 · Q7 · Q8 · Q9 · Q10 · Q11 · Q12

Assigned reading: the explanations in this case and the question-linked course evidence guide. The objective map distinguishes tested decisions from concepts taught in explanations.

Concepts: ckd-06, ckd-09, ckd-12, ckd-13, ckd-17, ckd-21, ckd-22, ckd-23, ckd-24, ckd-25, glom-04, glom-05, glom-07, glom-10, glom-11, glom-18, glom-19, glom-20, glom-21, glom-22, glom-23, glom-24, structural-23, structural-26.